EMT JBL FINAL EXAM NEWEST 2024 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
According to the USDOT, minimum staffing for BLS ambulance includes: - (answer) At least one EMT in
the patient compartment. The driver does not need to be an EMT
Which of the following statements regarding heatstroke is correct? - (answer) Heatsrtoke occurs when
the body is exposed to more heat than it can eliminate and normal mechanisms such as sweating are
overwhelmed. The temp can rise to appoint where tissues are destroyed. It can develop during
prolonged vigorous physical activity or in closed, poorly ventilated, hot and humid space. High humidity
impairs heat elimination via sweating. Patients will have hot, dry, flushed skin, become agitated, and LOC
will decrease
If a vehicle strikes a tree at 60 mph, the unrestrained driver would likely experience the MOST severe
injuries during the: - (answer) Motor-vehicle crashes typically consist of three separate collisions.
Understanding the events that occur during each collision will help you remain alert for certain types of
injury patterns. During the first collision, the vehicle strikes another object. Damage to the car is perhaps
the most dramatic part of the collision, but it does not directly affect patient care. It does, however,
provide information about the severity of the collision; thus, it has an indirect effect on patient care.
During the second collision, the passenger collides with the interior of the vehicle. Just like the obvious
damage to the exterior of the car, the injuries that result are often dramatic and usually apparent during
your primary assessment. During the third collision, the occupant's internal organs collide with the solid
structures of the body. Although the injuries that occur during the third collision may not be as obvious
as those that occur during the second collision, they are often the most life-threatening.
A 22-year-old man had a strong acid chemical splashed into both of his eyes. He is conscious and alert, is
experiencing intense pain, and states that he is wearing contact lenses. Treatment should include: -
(answer) As a general rule, contact lenses should be left in place. Chemical eye burns are an exception
to this rule. If left in place, the chemical could get behind the contact lens and continue to cause injury.
Therefore, you should remove the contact lenses and immediately irrigate the eyes with sterile saline or
water. If needed, continue to irrigate the eyes throughout transport.
A 22-year-old male has a shard of glass impaled in his cheek. You look inside his mouth and see minor
bleeding. The patient is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. You should: - (answer) It remains
true that you should remove an impaled object if it compromises the airway or impedes your ability to
manage the airway. However, neither is the case with this patient because he has an adequate airway.
He is conscious and alert and has only minor bleeding in his mouth. The safest approach, and most
practical given the situation, would be to carefully stabilize the shard of glass in place; consider wrapping
the exposed glass with gauze to protect yourself from getting cut. Since the patient is conscious and alert
and has only minor oral bleeding, it would not be unreasonable to hand him the suction catheter and
allow him to use it as needed. Be sure to instruct the patient to use the suction and not to swallow any
,EMT JBL FINAL EXAM NEWEST 2024 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
blood. Keep in mind that if you attempt to remove the shard of glass, you risk cutting yourself and
causing further injury to the patient.
When an error occurs while using the AED, it is MOST often the result of: - (answer) AEDs are highly
sensitive and specific in recognizing shockable rhythms (eg, V-Fib, pulseless V-Tach); this means that they
are highly reliable. It would be extremely rare for the AED to recommend a shock when one is not
indicated or fail to recommend a shock when one is indicated. When an error does occur, it is usually the
operator's fault. The most common error is not having a charged battery. To avoid this problem, many
AEDs are equipped with an alarm that warns the operator if the battery is not fully charged. Some of the
older AEDs, however, are not equipped with this feature. Therefore, it is important to check the AED
daily, exercise the battery as often as the manufacturer recommends, and always have a spare, fully
charged battery on hand.
Prior to your arrival, a woman experiencing an asthma attack took two puffs from her prescribed inhaler
without relief. After administering supplemental oxygen, you should: - (answer) Before assisting a
patient with any medication other than oxygen, the EMT must ensure that the medication is prescribed
to the patient and then obtain authorization from medical control. In this case, the physician probably
will allow you to help the patient take one more puff from her inhaler. Generally, up to three puffs from
an inhaler are delivered in the field. It is important for you to ask the patient how many puffs were taken
from the inhaler before you arrived. The EMT must correct any airway and/or breathing problems as
quickly as possible. After doing so, a secondary assessment can be performed.
Upon discovering an open chest wound, you should: - (answer) Upon discovering an open chest wound
(ie, sucking chest wound), you must take immediate action to prevent air from entering the wound. This
is most effectively accomplished by applying an occlusive dressing or similar material to the wound. A
porous (non-occlusive) trauma dressing will not prevent air from entering the wound. Tape three sides of
the occlusive dressing and closely monitor the patient. If worsened respiratory distress and signs of
shock are noted, a tension pneumothorax is probably developing, and you must release pressure from
the pleural space by lifting up the unsecured portion of the occlusive dressing.
Which of the following signs and symptoms are MOST characteristic of hyperglycemic ketoacidosis? -
(answer) Hyperglycemic ketoacidosis (diabetic coma) is characterized by a dangerously high blood
glucose level (hyperglycemia); slow onset; warm, dry skin (from dehydration); Kussmaul's respirations,
which are deep and rapid; and breath with a fruity or acetone odor. Insulin shock results from a low
blood glucose level (hypoglycemia) and is characterized by a rapid onset; altered mental status; and cool,
clammy skin.
, EMT JBL FINAL EXAM NEWEST 2024 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
You are assessing an elderly man with respiratory distress. He is coughing up bloody sputum and has an
oxygen saturation of 85%. You auscultate his breath sounds and hear coarse crackles in all lung fields.
This patient MOST likely has: - (answer) This patient's signs and symptoms are classic for left-sided
congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema. As the left side of the heart weakens, so that it can no
longer effectively pump blood, blood backs up into the lungs, resulting in pulmonary edema. As
pulmonary edema gets worse, the patient begins coughing up pink, frothy sputum (hemoptysis). The
presence of fluid in the lungs impairs the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, resulting in hypoxemia
and a low oxygen saturation (SpO2). Auscultation of the patient's lungs often reveals coarse crackles,
which indicates the presence of fluid. Emphysema is a chronic respiratory disease, not an acute one.
Furthermore, hemoptysis is not a common finding with emphysema. Likewise, patients with
decompensated asthma often have markedly diminished lung sounds owing to severe bronchospasm;
hemoptysis and crackles are not common. Bacterial pneumonia can cause respiratory distress; however,
it usually presents with fever and diminished breath sounds to a localized area of a lung (eg, the left
lower lobe).
After an adult cardiac arrest patient has been intubated by a paramedic, you are providing ventilations as
your partner performs chest compressions. When ventilating the patient, you should: - (answer) When
ventilating an adult cardiac arrest patient with an advanced airway in place (ie, ET tube, multilumen
airway, supraglottic airway), you should deliver each breath over a period of 1 second--just enough to
produce visible chest rise--at a rate of 10 breaths/min (one breath every 6 seconds). Do not attempt to
synchronize ventilations with chest compressions once the airway has been secured with an advanced
device. Hyperventilation should be avoided, as it may result in increased intrathoracic pressure,
decreased blood return to the heart, and, as a result, less effective chest compressions.
Which of the following is a common side effect of nitroglycerin? - (answer) Because nitroglycerin (NTG)
causes vasodilation, including the vessels within the brain, cerebral blood flow increases following its
administration. This often causes a pounding headache for the patient. As uncomfortable as it is for the
patient, headaches are a common and expected side effect of the drug. The vasodilatory effects of
nitroglycerin could result in hypotension; therefore, the patient's blood pressure should be carefully
monitored. Nausea and anxiety are common symptoms of acute coronary syndrome; they are not
common side effects of nitroglycerin.
A 56-year-old man has labored, shallow breathing at a rate of 28 breaths/min. He is responsive to pain
only. You should: - (answer) This patient in this scenario is not breathing adequately. He is responsive to
pain only, and his respirations are rapid, labored, and shallow. You should insert a nasopharyngeal
airway, which is usually well tolerated in patients who are semiconscious and have a gag reflex, and
assist his ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device. When assisting a patient's breathing, you should
squeeze the bag-valve-mask device to ensure that he or she receives 10 to 12 adequate breaths per
minute. Do not hyperventilate the patient, as this increases the risks of vomiting and aspiration.
Hyperventilation also increases intrathoracic pressure, which may impair venous return to the heart
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
According to the USDOT, minimum staffing for BLS ambulance includes: - (answer) At least one EMT in
the patient compartment. The driver does not need to be an EMT
Which of the following statements regarding heatstroke is correct? - (answer) Heatsrtoke occurs when
the body is exposed to more heat than it can eliminate and normal mechanisms such as sweating are
overwhelmed. The temp can rise to appoint where tissues are destroyed. It can develop during
prolonged vigorous physical activity or in closed, poorly ventilated, hot and humid space. High humidity
impairs heat elimination via sweating. Patients will have hot, dry, flushed skin, become agitated, and LOC
will decrease
If a vehicle strikes a tree at 60 mph, the unrestrained driver would likely experience the MOST severe
injuries during the: - (answer) Motor-vehicle crashes typically consist of three separate collisions.
Understanding the events that occur during each collision will help you remain alert for certain types of
injury patterns. During the first collision, the vehicle strikes another object. Damage to the car is perhaps
the most dramatic part of the collision, but it does not directly affect patient care. It does, however,
provide information about the severity of the collision; thus, it has an indirect effect on patient care.
During the second collision, the passenger collides with the interior of the vehicle. Just like the obvious
damage to the exterior of the car, the injuries that result are often dramatic and usually apparent during
your primary assessment. During the third collision, the occupant's internal organs collide with the solid
structures of the body. Although the injuries that occur during the third collision may not be as obvious
as those that occur during the second collision, they are often the most life-threatening.
A 22-year-old man had a strong acid chemical splashed into both of his eyes. He is conscious and alert, is
experiencing intense pain, and states that he is wearing contact lenses. Treatment should include: -
(answer) As a general rule, contact lenses should be left in place. Chemical eye burns are an exception
to this rule. If left in place, the chemical could get behind the contact lens and continue to cause injury.
Therefore, you should remove the contact lenses and immediately irrigate the eyes with sterile saline or
water. If needed, continue to irrigate the eyes throughout transport.
A 22-year-old male has a shard of glass impaled in his cheek. You look inside his mouth and see minor
bleeding. The patient is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. You should: - (answer) It remains
true that you should remove an impaled object if it compromises the airway or impedes your ability to
manage the airway. However, neither is the case with this patient because he has an adequate airway.
He is conscious and alert and has only minor bleeding in his mouth. The safest approach, and most
practical given the situation, would be to carefully stabilize the shard of glass in place; consider wrapping
the exposed glass with gauze to protect yourself from getting cut. Since the patient is conscious and alert
and has only minor oral bleeding, it would not be unreasonable to hand him the suction catheter and
allow him to use it as needed. Be sure to instruct the patient to use the suction and not to swallow any
,EMT JBL FINAL EXAM NEWEST 2024 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
blood. Keep in mind that if you attempt to remove the shard of glass, you risk cutting yourself and
causing further injury to the patient.
When an error occurs while using the AED, it is MOST often the result of: - (answer) AEDs are highly
sensitive and specific in recognizing shockable rhythms (eg, V-Fib, pulseless V-Tach); this means that they
are highly reliable. It would be extremely rare for the AED to recommend a shock when one is not
indicated or fail to recommend a shock when one is indicated. When an error does occur, it is usually the
operator's fault. The most common error is not having a charged battery. To avoid this problem, many
AEDs are equipped with an alarm that warns the operator if the battery is not fully charged. Some of the
older AEDs, however, are not equipped with this feature. Therefore, it is important to check the AED
daily, exercise the battery as often as the manufacturer recommends, and always have a spare, fully
charged battery on hand.
Prior to your arrival, a woman experiencing an asthma attack took two puffs from her prescribed inhaler
without relief. After administering supplemental oxygen, you should: - (answer) Before assisting a
patient with any medication other than oxygen, the EMT must ensure that the medication is prescribed
to the patient and then obtain authorization from medical control. In this case, the physician probably
will allow you to help the patient take one more puff from her inhaler. Generally, up to three puffs from
an inhaler are delivered in the field. It is important for you to ask the patient how many puffs were taken
from the inhaler before you arrived. The EMT must correct any airway and/or breathing problems as
quickly as possible. After doing so, a secondary assessment can be performed.
Upon discovering an open chest wound, you should: - (answer) Upon discovering an open chest wound
(ie, sucking chest wound), you must take immediate action to prevent air from entering the wound. This
is most effectively accomplished by applying an occlusive dressing or similar material to the wound. A
porous (non-occlusive) trauma dressing will not prevent air from entering the wound. Tape three sides of
the occlusive dressing and closely monitor the patient. If worsened respiratory distress and signs of
shock are noted, a tension pneumothorax is probably developing, and you must release pressure from
the pleural space by lifting up the unsecured portion of the occlusive dressing.
Which of the following signs and symptoms are MOST characteristic of hyperglycemic ketoacidosis? -
(answer) Hyperglycemic ketoacidosis (diabetic coma) is characterized by a dangerously high blood
glucose level (hyperglycemia); slow onset; warm, dry skin (from dehydration); Kussmaul's respirations,
which are deep and rapid; and breath with a fruity or acetone odor. Insulin shock results from a low
blood glucose level (hypoglycemia) and is characterized by a rapid onset; altered mental status; and cool,
clammy skin.
, EMT JBL FINAL EXAM NEWEST 2024 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
You are assessing an elderly man with respiratory distress. He is coughing up bloody sputum and has an
oxygen saturation of 85%. You auscultate his breath sounds and hear coarse crackles in all lung fields.
This patient MOST likely has: - (answer) This patient's signs and symptoms are classic for left-sided
congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema. As the left side of the heart weakens, so that it can no
longer effectively pump blood, blood backs up into the lungs, resulting in pulmonary edema. As
pulmonary edema gets worse, the patient begins coughing up pink, frothy sputum (hemoptysis). The
presence of fluid in the lungs impairs the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, resulting in hypoxemia
and a low oxygen saturation (SpO2). Auscultation of the patient's lungs often reveals coarse crackles,
which indicates the presence of fluid. Emphysema is a chronic respiratory disease, not an acute one.
Furthermore, hemoptysis is not a common finding with emphysema. Likewise, patients with
decompensated asthma often have markedly diminished lung sounds owing to severe bronchospasm;
hemoptysis and crackles are not common. Bacterial pneumonia can cause respiratory distress; however,
it usually presents with fever and diminished breath sounds to a localized area of a lung (eg, the left
lower lobe).
After an adult cardiac arrest patient has been intubated by a paramedic, you are providing ventilations as
your partner performs chest compressions. When ventilating the patient, you should: - (answer) When
ventilating an adult cardiac arrest patient with an advanced airway in place (ie, ET tube, multilumen
airway, supraglottic airway), you should deliver each breath over a period of 1 second--just enough to
produce visible chest rise--at a rate of 10 breaths/min (one breath every 6 seconds). Do not attempt to
synchronize ventilations with chest compressions once the airway has been secured with an advanced
device. Hyperventilation should be avoided, as it may result in increased intrathoracic pressure,
decreased blood return to the heart, and, as a result, less effective chest compressions.
Which of the following is a common side effect of nitroglycerin? - (answer) Because nitroglycerin (NTG)
causes vasodilation, including the vessels within the brain, cerebral blood flow increases following its
administration. This often causes a pounding headache for the patient. As uncomfortable as it is for the
patient, headaches are a common and expected side effect of the drug. The vasodilatory effects of
nitroglycerin could result in hypotension; therefore, the patient's blood pressure should be carefully
monitored. Nausea and anxiety are common symptoms of acute coronary syndrome; they are not
common side effects of nitroglycerin.
A 56-year-old man has labored, shallow breathing at a rate of 28 breaths/min. He is responsive to pain
only. You should: - (answer) This patient in this scenario is not breathing adequately. He is responsive to
pain only, and his respirations are rapid, labored, and shallow. You should insert a nasopharyngeal
airway, which is usually well tolerated in patients who are semiconscious and have a gag reflex, and
assist his ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device. When assisting a patient's breathing, you should
squeeze the bag-valve-mask device to ensure that he or she receives 10 to 12 adequate breaths per
minute. Do not hyperventilate the patient, as this increases the risks of vomiting and aspiration.
Hyperventilation also increases intrathoracic pressure, which may impair venous return to the heart
