PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM TESTBANK-
CORRECT AND VERIFIED GUIDE
2025 – 2026. GRADED A+
1. Both men and women experience bone loss with aging. The bones most likely to demonstrate significant loss
are:
a. Cortical bones
b. Femoral neck bones
c. Cervical vertebrae
d. Pelvic bones
2. Bisphosphonates treat or prevent osteoporosis by:
a. Inhibiting osteoclastic activity
b. Fostering bone resorption
c. Enhancing calcium uptake in the bone
d. Strengthening the osteoclastic proton pump
3. Prophylactic use of bisphosphonates is recommended for patients with early osteopenia related to long-term
use of which of the following drugs?
a. Selective estrogen receptor modulators
b. Aspirin
c. Glucocorticoids
d. Calcium supplements
4. Patients with cystic fibrosis are often prescribed enzyme replacement for pancreatic secretions. Each
replacement drug has lipase, protease, and amylase components, but the drug is prescribed in units of:
a. Lipase
b. Protease
c. Amylase
d. Pancreatin
5. Brands of pancreatic enzyme replacement drugs are:
a. Bioequivalent
b. About the same in cost per unit of lipase across brands
c. Able to be interchanged between generic and brand-name products to reduce cost d. None of the
above
6. When given subcutaneously, how long until neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin begins to take effect (onset
of action) after administration?
a. 15 to 30 minutes
b. 60 to 90 minutes
c. 3 to 4 hours
d. 6 to 8 hours
7. Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of
hypoglycemia include:
a. “Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration
b. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension
c. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
d. Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma
8. Nonselective beta blockers and alcohol create serious drug interactions with insulin because they: a.
Increase blood glucose levels
, b. Produce unexplained diaphoresis
c. Interfere with the ability of the body to metabolize glucose
d. Mask the signs and symptoms of altered glucose levels
9. Lispro is an insulin analogue produced by recombinant DNA technology. Which of the following statements
about this form of insulin is NOT true?
a. Optimal time of preprandial injection is 15 minutes.
b. Duration of action is increased when the dose is increased.
c. It is compatible with neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin.
d. It has no pronounced peak.
10. The decision may be made to switch from twice daily neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin to insulin
glargine to improve glycemia control throughout the day. If this is done:
a.. The initial dose of glargine is reduced by 20% to avoid hypoglycemia
b. The initial dose of glargine is 2 to 10 units per day.
c. Patients who have been on high doses of NPH will need tests for insulin antibodies.
d. Obese patients may require more than 100 units per day.
11. When blood glucose levels are difficult to control in type 2 diabetes some form of insulin may be added to
the treatment regimen to control blood glucose and limit complication risks.
Which ofthe following statements is accurate based on research?
a. Premixed insulin analogues are better at lowering HbA1C and have less risk for hypoglycemia.
b. Premixed insulin analogues and the newer premixed insulins are associated with more weight gain than the oral
antidiabetic agents. c.
Newer premixed insulins are better at lowering HbA1C and postprandial
d. Patients glucose who are
not levels than long-acting
controlled insulins. on oral
agents and have
postprandial hyperglycemia can have neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin added at bedtime.
12. Metformin is a primary choice of drug to treat hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetes because it:
a. Substitutes for insulin usually secreted by the pancreas
b. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
c. Increases the release of insulin from beta cells
d. Decreases peripheral glucose utilization
13. Prior to prescribing metformin, the provider should:
a. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function
b. Try the patient on insulin
c. Tell the patient to increase iodine intake
d. Have the patient stop taking any sulfonylurea to avoid dangerous drug interactions 14. The action of
“gliptins” is different from other antidiabetic agents because they:
a. Have a low risk for hypoglycemia
b. Are not associated with weight gain
c. Close ATP-dependent potassium channels in the beta cell
d. Act on the incretin system to indirectly increase insulin production 15. Sitagliptin has been
approved for:
a. Monotherapy in once-daily doses
b. Combination therapy with metformin
c. Both 1 and
2
, d. Neither 1 nor 2 16.
GLP-1 agonists:
a. Directly bind to a receptor in the pancreatic beta cell
b. Have been approved for monotherapy
c. Speed gastric emptying to decrease appetite
d. Can be given orally once daily
17. Avoid concurrent administration of exenatide with which of the following drugs?
a. Digoxin
b. Warfarin
c. Lovastatin
d. All of the above
18. Administration of exenatide is by subcutaneous injection:
a. 30 minutes prior to the morning meal
b. 60 minutes prior to the morning and evening meal
c. 15 minutes after the evening meal
d. 60 minutes before each meal daily
19. Potentially fatal granulocytopenia has been associated with treatment of hyperthyroidism with
propylthiouracil. Patients should be taught to report:
a. Tinnitus and decreased salivation
c. Hypocalcemia and b. Fever and soreosteoporosis
d. throat Laryngeal edema and difficulty swallowing
20. Elderly patients who are started on levothyroxine for thyroid replacement should be monitored for:
a. Excessive sedation
b. Tachycardia and angina
c. Weight gain
d. Cold intolerance
21. Which of the following is not an indication that growth hormone supplements should be discontinued?
a. Imaging indication of epiphyseal closure
b. Growth curve increases have plateaued
c. Complaints of mild bone pain
d. Achievement of anticipated height goals
22. Besides osteoporosis, IV bisphosphonates are also indicated for:
a. Paget’s Disease
b. Early osteopenia
c. Renal cancer
d. Early closure of cranial sutures
23. What is the role of calcium supplements when patients take bisphosphonates?
a. They must be restricted to
allow the They must be taken in sufficient amounts to provide foundational elements for bone medication to
work. b. growth.
c. They must be taken at the same time as the bisphosphonates.
d. They only work with bisphosphonates if daily intake is restricted.
24. Which of the following statements about pancreatic enzymes is true?
a. Dosing may be titrated according to the decrease of steatorrhea.
b. The amount of carbohydrates in the meal drives the amount of enzyme used.
c. The amount of medication used is increased with a cystic fibrosis pulmonary flare.
d. The FDA and Internet-available formulations are bioequivalent.
, 25. Besides cystic fibrosis, which other medical state may trigger the need for pancreatic enzymes? a.
Paget’s disease
b. Pulmonary cancers
c. Gallbladder surgery
d. Some bariatric surgeries
Drugs Affecting the Endocrine System: Pituitary, Thyroid, and Adrenal Drugs
1. The nurse is teaching the patient, newly diagnosed with Graves’ disease, about the normal functioning of the
thyroid gland. What hormone will the nurse tell the patient controls production and release of thyroid
hormones?
a. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
b. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
c. Tetraiodothyronine
d. Triiodothyronine
2. A child is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The nurse anticipates an order for the drug of choice when treating
children, which is what?
a. Liothyronine (Cytomel)
b. Liotrix (Thyrolar)
c. Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
d. Methimazole (Tapazole)
3. A patient is at risk for thrombosis formation and is taking an oral anticoagulant. The patient has been newly
diagnosed with hypothyroidism and placed on levothyroxine (Synthroid). What will the nurse monitor the
patient for?
a. Tachycardia
b. Elevated body temperature
c. Increased time spent sleeping
d. Increased bruising and bleeding
4. The nurse is providing patient teaching regarding the administration of levothyroxine (Synthroid). What is the
nurse’s priority teaching point?
a. Take the medication after breakfast.
b. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
c. Remain in the upright position for 30 minutes after administering.
d. Take the medication before going to bed at night.
5. The nurse instructs the patient with a new prescription to treat hyperthyroidism and includes the importance
of regular lab studies to monitor for bone marrow suppression, which can be an adverse effect of this drug.
What drug is the nurse teaching the patient about?
a. Methimazole (Tapazole)
b. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
c. Sodium iodide I131 (Generic)
d. Potassium iodide (Thyro-Block)
6. A patient is seen in the clinic and diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Potassium iodide is prescribed. The nurse
reviews the patient’s medical record before administering the drug. What assessment finding would cause the
nurse to alter the plan of care?
a. A daily walk of 3 miles a day
b. A low fat, low sodium diet
c. A bowel movement every 2 to 3 days
d. Digoxin 0.125 mg daily
CORRECT AND VERIFIED GUIDE
2025 – 2026. GRADED A+
1. Both men and women experience bone loss with aging. The bones most likely to demonstrate significant loss
are:
a. Cortical bones
b. Femoral neck bones
c. Cervical vertebrae
d. Pelvic bones
2. Bisphosphonates treat or prevent osteoporosis by:
a. Inhibiting osteoclastic activity
b. Fostering bone resorption
c. Enhancing calcium uptake in the bone
d. Strengthening the osteoclastic proton pump
3. Prophylactic use of bisphosphonates is recommended for patients with early osteopenia related to long-term
use of which of the following drugs?
a. Selective estrogen receptor modulators
b. Aspirin
c. Glucocorticoids
d. Calcium supplements
4. Patients with cystic fibrosis are often prescribed enzyme replacement for pancreatic secretions. Each
replacement drug has lipase, protease, and amylase components, but the drug is prescribed in units of:
a. Lipase
b. Protease
c. Amylase
d. Pancreatin
5. Brands of pancreatic enzyme replacement drugs are:
a. Bioequivalent
b. About the same in cost per unit of lipase across brands
c. Able to be interchanged between generic and brand-name products to reduce cost d. None of the
above
6. When given subcutaneously, how long until neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin begins to take effect (onset
of action) after administration?
a. 15 to 30 minutes
b. 60 to 90 minutes
c. 3 to 4 hours
d. 6 to 8 hours
7. Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of
hypoglycemia include:
a. “Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration
b. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension
c. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
d. Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma
8. Nonselective beta blockers and alcohol create serious drug interactions with insulin because they: a.
Increase blood glucose levels
, b. Produce unexplained diaphoresis
c. Interfere with the ability of the body to metabolize glucose
d. Mask the signs and symptoms of altered glucose levels
9. Lispro is an insulin analogue produced by recombinant DNA technology. Which of the following statements
about this form of insulin is NOT true?
a. Optimal time of preprandial injection is 15 minutes.
b. Duration of action is increased when the dose is increased.
c. It is compatible with neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin.
d. It has no pronounced peak.
10. The decision may be made to switch from twice daily neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin to insulin
glargine to improve glycemia control throughout the day. If this is done:
a.. The initial dose of glargine is reduced by 20% to avoid hypoglycemia
b. The initial dose of glargine is 2 to 10 units per day.
c. Patients who have been on high doses of NPH will need tests for insulin antibodies.
d. Obese patients may require more than 100 units per day.
11. When blood glucose levels are difficult to control in type 2 diabetes some form of insulin may be added to
the treatment regimen to control blood glucose and limit complication risks.
Which ofthe following statements is accurate based on research?
a. Premixed insulin analogues are better at lowering HbA1C and have less risk for hypoglycemia.
b. Premixed insulin analogues and the newer premixed insulins are associated with more weight gain than the oral
antidiabetic agents. c.
Newer premixed insulins are better at lowering HbA1C and postprandial
d. Patients glucose who are
not levels than long-acting
controlled insulins. on oral
agents and have
postprandial hyperglycemia can have neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin added at bedtime.
12. Metformin is a primary choice of drug to treat hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetes because it:
a. Substitutes for insulin usually secreted by the pancreas
b. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
c. Increases the release of insulin from beta cells
d. Decreases peripheral glucose utilization
13. Prior to prescribing metformin, the provider should:
a. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function
b. Try the patient on insulin
c. Tell the patient to increase iodine intake
d. Have the patient stop taking any sulfonylurea to avoid dangerous drug interactions 14. The action of
“gliptins” is different from other antidiabetic agents because they:
a. Have a low risk for hypoglycemia
b. Are not associated with weight gain
c. Close ATP-dependent potassium channels in the beta cell
d. Act on the incretin system to indirectly increase insulin production 15. Sitagliptin has been
approved for:
a. Monotherapy in once-daily doses
b. Combination therapy with metformin
c. Both 1 and
2
, d. Neither 1 nor 2 16.
GLP-1 agonists:
a. Directly bind to a receptor in the pancreatic beta cell
b. Have been approved for monotherapy
c. Speed gastric emptying to decrease appetite
d. Can be given orally once daily
17. Avoid concurrent administration of exenatide with which of the following drugs?
a. Digoxin
b. Warfarin
c. Lovastatin
d. All of the above
18. Administration of exenatide is by subcutaneous injection:
a. 30 minutes prior to the morning meal
b. 60 minutes prior to the morning and evening meal
c. 15 minutes after the evening meal
d. 60 minutes before each meal daily
19. Potentially fatal granulocytopenia has been associated with treatment of hyperthyroidism with
propylthiouracil. Patients should be taught to report:
a. Tinnitus and decreased salivation
c. Hypocalcemia and b. Fever and soreosteoporosis
d. throat Laryngeal edema and difficulty swallowing
20. Elderly patients who are started on levothyroxine for thyroid replacement should be monitored for:
a. Excessive sedation
b. Tachycardia and angina
c. Weight gain
d. Cold intolerance
21. Which of the following is not an indication that growth hormone supplements should be discontinued?
a. Imaging indication of epiphyseal closure
b. Growth curve increases have plateaued
c. Complaints of mild bone pain
d. Achievement of anticipated height goals
22. Besides osteoporosis, IV bisphosphonates are also indicated for:
a. Paget’s Disease
b. Early osteopenia
c. Renal cancer
d. Early closure of cranial sutures
23. What is the role of calcium supplements when patients take bisphosphonates?
a. They must be restricted to
allow the They must be taken in sufficient amounts to provide foundational elements for bone medication to
work. b. growth.
c. They must be taken at the same time as the bisphosphonates.
d. They only work with bisphosphonates if daily intake is restricted.
24. Which of the following statements about pancreatic enzymes is true?
a. Dosing may be titrated according to the decrease of steatorrhea.
b. The amount of carbohydrates in the meal drives the amount of enzyme used.
c. The amount of medication used is increased with a cystic fibrosis pulmonary flare.
d. The FDA and Internet-available formulations are bioequivalent.
, 25. Besides cystic fibrosis, which other medical state may trigger the need for pancreatic enzymes? a.
Paget’s disease
b. Pulmonary cancers
c. Gallbladder surgery
d. Some bariatric surgeries
Drugs Affecting the Endocrine System: Pituitary, Thyroid, and Adrenal Drugs
1. The nurse is teaching the patient, newly diagnosed with Graves’ disease, about the normal functioning of the
thyroid gland. What hormone will the nurse tell the patient controls production and release of thyroid
hormones?
a. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
b. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
c. Tetraiodothyronine
d. Triiodothyronine
2. A child is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The nurse anticipates an order for the drug of choice when treating
children, which is what?
a. Liothyronine (Cytomel)
b. Liotrix (Thyrolar)
c. Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
d. Methimazole (Tapazole)
3. A patient is at risk for thrombosis formation and is taking an oral anticoagulant. The patient has been newly
diagnosed with hypothyroidism and placed on levothyroxine (Synthroid). What will the nurse monitor the
patient for?
a. Tachycardia
b. Elevated body temperature
c. Increased time spent sleeping
d. Increased bruising and bleeding
4. The nurse is providing patient teaching regarding the administration of levothyroxine (Synthroid). What is the
nurse’s priority teaching point?
a. Take the medication after breakfast.
b. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
c. Remain in the upright position for 30 minutes after administering.
d. Take the medication before going to bed at night.
5. The nurse instructs the patient with a new prescription to treat hyperthyroidism and includes the importance
of regular lab studies to monitor for bone marrow suppression, which can be an adverse effect of this drug.
What drug is the nurse teaching the patient about?
a. Methimazole (Tapazole)
b. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
c. Sodium iodide I131 (Generic)
d. Potassium iodide (Thyro-Block)
6. A patient is seen in the clinic and diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Potassium iodide is prescribed. The nurse
reviews the patient’s medical record before administering the drug. What assessment finding would cause the
nurse to alter the plan of care?
a. A daily walk of 3 miles a day
b. A low fat, low sodium diet
c. A bowel movement every 2 to 3 days
d. Digoxin 0.125 mg daily
