Barkley 3P
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hjfb77
1. You are auscultating Jon's chest. When he sits up and leans forward, you
can hear a high pitched, blowing murmur at S2. What does this type of murmur
most likely indicate?
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Aortic Stenosis
c. Mitral regurgitation
d. Aortic regurgitation: d. Aortic regurgitation
Aortic regurg is soft, high pitched, blowing diastolic decrescendo that best heard at
the 3rd left interspace at base. Murmur initiated w/ S2 and heard when Pt sits up
and leans forward. Mitral Stenosis= low pitched diastolic rumble & doesn't radiate.
Best heard in apex when in left lateral position. Aortic stenosis= loud, harsh murmur
midsystole, radiated down the side of neck and down apex. Mitral regurg= loud
blowing murmur heard at apex and is pansystolic.
2. Which of the following is the most common clinical manifestation of osteo-
porosis?
a. Bone deformity
b. Bone pain
c. Pathologic fracture
d. Fat embolism: a. Bone deformity
most common metabolic bone disease, is chronic, progressive, & systemic; Low
bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue, = leads to increased skeletal fragility &
deformity. Osteoporosis usually not apparent until AFTER a fracture; 2/3 of vertebral
fractures are painless. Fat embolism from fat obstruction d/t injury or trauma & not
common in osteoporosis.
3. A male patient requests a phosphodiesterase inhibitor to treat erectile
dysfunction. Which of the following is appropriate?
a. Tadalafil (Cialis) may be used at a dose of 2.5 mg daily if sexual activity will
take place two or more times per week.
b. Vardenafil (Levitra), 5 mg, may be taken with a high-fat meal four hours
before sexual activity
c. Sildenafil (Viagra), 50 mg, may be taken one hour before sexual activity as
long as the patient has a resting blood pressure below 170/110 mm Hg
d. Avanafil (Stendra) is recommended at 50 mg for all patients, and may be
taken 30 minutes before sexual activity.: a. Tadalafil (Cialis) may be used at a
dose of 2.5 mg daily if sexual activity will take place two or more times per week.
, Barkley 3P
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hjfb77
4. Which of the following is NOT part of Virchow's Triad?
a. Hypercoagulability
b. Damage to endothelial cells
c. Sympathetic tone
d. Turbulent blood flow: c. Sympathetic tone
Virchow's triad is a method of describing the three main factors that lead to a
thrombosis -- sympathetic tone is not one of those and doesn't affect blood clotting.
Hypercoagulability does lead to clotting, including malignancy, trauma, sepsis, and
thrombophilia. Endothelial cell damage is part of Virchow's triad bc it causes blood
to clot by promoting platelet adherence to the wall of the vessels; vascular wall injury
is the second aspect of Virchow's triad. Lastly, turbulent blood flow is a constituent
of circulatory stasis the third component of the triad, which can be caused by atrial
fibrillation, venous obstruction, and ventricular dysfunction
5. A patient with kidney stones also presents with hypercalcemia and mental
confusion. The practitioner should evaluate the patient for which of the follow-
ing?
a. Cushing Syndrome
b. Conn's Syndrome
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Addison's disease: c. Hyperparathyroidism
6. Which of the following statements is true regarding contraceptives?
a. Because oral contraceptives may cause harm to the fetus, they are pregnan-
cy category X drugs in pregnancy.
b. Oral contraceptives are linked to the promotion of ovarian, endometrial, and
breast cancer.
c. By increasing angiotensin and aldosterone, oral contraceptives may in-
crease blood pressure.
d. Oral contraceptives may reduce the effects of theophylline, benzodi-
azepines, and tricyclic antidepressants: c. By increasing angiotensin and aldos-
terone, oral contraceptives may increase blood pressure.
estrogen promotes aldosterone production= sodium retention & HTN. Also believed
stimulates hepatic production of angiotensinogen, affecting renal system via elevat-
ed angiotensin & BP. OCP are category X, but because serve no use, decrease
incidence of ovarian and endometrial ca and don't increase risk of breast ca. OCP
containing progestin may enhance effects of theophylline, benzos, and tricyclic
antidepressants by decreasing clearance.
, Barkley 3P
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hjfb77
7. Upon percussion of the chest, you notice hyperresonance. Of the following
choices which would most likely be the cause?
a. Atelectasis
b. Normal Lung
c. Pneumothorax
d. Pulmonary embolism: c. Pneumothorax
8. What is the proper order of steps to accurately perform the Ortolani maneu-
ver?
a. Extend the legs, adduct the legs, and abduct the knees
b. Flex the knees, abduct the knees, and adduct the legs
c. Flex the knees, adduct the legs, and abduct the legs
d. Extend the knees, abduct the legs, and adduct the knees: b. Flex the knees,
abduct the knees, and adduct the legs
done on supine infant, flex knees while holding thighs. Adduct legs until thumbs
touch, follow with abduct knees until lateral part of knee touch table.
9. You have four patients who all have a family history of developing coronary
heart disease at an early age. According to their blood test results, which
patient would most likely develop coronary heart disease first?
a. Cholesterol: 170; LDL: 120; Triglycerides: 120; HDL: 45
b. Cholesterol: 195; LDL: 110; Triglycerides: 135; HDL: 30
c. Cholesterol: 170; LDL: 100; Triglycerides: 140; HDL: 20
d. Cholesterol: 190; LDL: 140; Triglycerides: 151; HDL: 50: d. Cholesterol: 190;
LDL: 140; Triglycerides: 151; HDL: 50
3 of the 4 measurements are above what should be; HDL <40 in men & 50 in women
increase risk, LDL aim is <130, Chol > 200 & trig >150 attributed to increase risk
heart disease.
10. This low-molecular-weight heparin is indicated for use with warfarin for the
treatment of acute symptomatic deep vein thrombosis, either with or without
pulmonary embolism:
a. Nadroparin
b. Dalteparin
c. Tinzaparin
d. Fondaparinux: c. Tinzaparin-
can be combined with warfarin for DVT, aids warfarin in inhibiting clotting of blood.
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hjfb77
1. You are auscultating Jon's chest. When he sits up and leans forward, you
can hear a high pitched, blowing murmur at S2. What does this type of murmur
most likely indicate?
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Aortic Stenosis
c. Mitral regurgitation
d. Aortic regurgitation: d. Aortic regurgitation
Aortic regurg is soft, high pitched, blowing diastolic decrescendo that best heard at
the 3rd left interspace at base. Murmur initiated w/ S2 and heard when Pt sits up
and leans forward. Mitral Stenosis= low pitched diastolic rumble & doesn't radiate.
Best heard in apex when in left lateral position. Aortic stenosis= loud, harsh murmur
midsystole, radiated down the side of neck and down apex. Mitral regurg= loud
blowing murmur heard at apex and is pansystolic.
2. Which of the following is the most common clinical manifestation of osteo-
porosis?
a. Bone deformity
b. Bone pain
c. Pathologic fracture
d. Fat embolism: a. Bone deformity
most common metabolic bone disease, is chronic, progressive, & systemic; Low
bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue, = leads to increased skeletal fragility &
deformity. Osteoporosis usually not apparent until AFTER a fracture; 2/3 of vertebral
fractures are painless. Fat embolism from fat obstruction d/t injury or trauma & not
common in osteoporosis.
3. A male patient requests a phosphodiesterase inhibitor to treat erectile
dysfunction. Which of the following is appropriate?
a. Tadalafil (Cialis) may be used at a dose of 2.5 mg daily if sexual activity will
take place two or more times per week.
b. Vardenafil (Levitra), 5 mg, may be taken with a high-fat meal four hours
before sexual activity
c. Sildenafil (Viagra), 50 mg, may be taken one hour before sexual activity as
long as the patient has a resting blood pressure below 170/110 mm Hg
d. Avanafil (Stendra) is recommended at 50 mg for all patients, and may be
taken 30 minutes before sexual activity.: a. Tadalafil (Cialis) may be used at a
dose of 2.5 mg daily if sexual activity will take place two or more times per week.
, Barkley 3P
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hjfb77
4. Which of the following is NOT part of Virchow's Triad?
a. Hypercoagulability
b. Damage to endothelial cells
c. Sympathetic tone
d. Turbulent blood flow: c. Sympathetic tone
Virchow's triad is a method of describing the three main factors that lead to a
thrombosis -- sympathetic tone is not one of those and doesn't affect blood clotting.
Hypercoagulability does lead to clotting, including malignancy, trauma, sepsis, and
thrombophilia. Endothelial cell damage is part of Virchow's triad bc it causes blood
to clot by promoting platelet adherence to the wall of the vessels; vascular wall injury
is the second aspect of Virchow's triad. Lastly, turbulent blood flow is a constituent
of circulatory stasis the third component of the triad, which can be caused by atrial
fibrillation, venous obstruction, and ventricular dysfunction
5. A patient with kidney stones also presents with hypercalcemia and mental
confusion. The practitioner should evaluate the patient for which of the follow-
ing?
a. Cushing Syndrome
b. Conn's Syndrome
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Addison's disease: c. Hyperparathyroidism
6. Which of the following statements is true regarding contraceptives?
a. Because oral contraceptives may cause harm to the fetus, they are pregnan-
cy category X drugs in pregnancy.
b. Oral contraceptives are linked to the promotion of ovarian, endometrial, and
breast cancer.
c. By increasing angiotensin and aldosterone, oral contraceptives may in-
crease blood pressure.
d. Oral contraceptives may reduce the effects of theophylline, benzodi-
azepines, and tricyclic antidepressants: c. By increasing angiotensin and aldos-
terone, oral contraceptives may increase blood pressure.
estrogen promotes aldosterone production= sodium retention & HTN. Also believed
stimulates hepatic production of angiotensinogen, affecting renal system via elevat-
ed angiotensin & BP. OCP are category X, but because serve no use, decrease
incidence of ovarian and endometrial ca and don't increase risk of breast ca. OCP
containing progestin may enhance effects of theophylline, benzos, and tricyclic
antidepressants by decreasing clearance.
, Barkley 3P
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hjfb77
7. Upon percussion of the chest, you notice hyperresonance. Of the following
choices which would most likely be the cause?
a. Atelectasis
b. Normal Lung
c. Pneumothorax
d. Pulmonary embolism: c. Pneumothorax
8. What is the proper order of steps to accurately perform the Ortolani maneu-
ver?
a. Extend the legs, adduct the legs, and abduct the knees
b. Flex the knees, abduct the knees, and adduct the legs
c. Flex the knees, adduct the legs, and abduct the legs
d. Extend the knees, abduct the legs, and adduct the knees: b. Flex the knees,
abduct the knees, and adduct the legs
done on supine infant, flex knees while holding thighs. Adduct legs until thumbs
touch, follow with abduct knees until lateral part of knee touch table.
9. You have four patients who all have a family history of developing coronary
heart disease at an early age. According to their blood test results, which
patient would most likely develop coronary heart disease first?
a. Cholesterol: 170; LDL: 120; Triglycerides: 120; HDL: 45
b. Cholesterol: 195; LDL: 110; Triglycerides: 135; HDL: 30
c. Cholesterol: 170; LDL: 100; Triglycerides: 140; HDL: 20
d. Cholesterol: 190; LDL: 140; Triglycerides: 151; HDL: 50: d. Cholesterol: 190;
LDL: 140; Triglycerides: 151; HDL: 50
3 of the 4 measurements are above what should be; HDL <40 in men & 50 in women
increase risk, LDL aim is <130, Chol > 200 & trig >150 attributed to increase risk
heart disease.
10. This low-molecular-weight heparin is indicated for use with warfarin for the
treatment of acute symptomatic deep vein thrombosis, either with or without
pulmonary embolism:
a. Nadroparin
b. Dalteparin
c. Tinzaparin
d. Fondaparinux: c. Tinzaparin-
can be combined with warfarin for DVT, aids warfarin in inhibiting clotting of blood.
