FPC / CFRN NEWEST EXAM REVIEW WITH
FREQUENTLY EXAMINED QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES 2026 FPC- CFRN EXAM
RATED A+
You have been requested to transport a twenty-year-old female
from an ICU with a history of TCA overdose two hours prior to
your arrival at the sending facility. Your cardiovascular
assessment of the patient would most likely include all of the
following with this type of toxicity, EXCEPT...
A. Early sinus bradycardia
B. Widening QRS
C. Prolonged QT and PR interval
D. Early tachycardia Corect Answer Early sinus bradycardia
Sinus tachycardia is the most common cardiac disturbance seen
following TCA overdose.
Rhabdomyolysis treatment Corect Answer - preventing shock and
preserving kidney fxn
,- NS with sodium bicarbonate
Your patient presents with ABG's of pH 7.39, pCO2 68 HCO3 32,
pO2 82. He has history of COPD and weighs 65 kg. He presents
with a history of SOB for 3 days with a RR 20 and is on 4
L/minute of oxygen by NC. He speaks in four- to five-word
sentences. What acid-base disorder is present?
A. Metabolic acidosis with partial compensation
B. Respiratory acidosis with complete compensation
C. Metabolic alkalosis with no compensation
D. Respiratory alkalosis with no compensation Corect Answer
Respiratory acidosis with complete compensation.
The pCO2 is elevated, which is the primary disorder, and the
compensatory response is the increased HCO3. The pH is
normal, so there is complete compensation.
Which formula can be used when calculating a cerebral perfusion
pressure (CPP)?
A. [(DBP × 2) + SBP] divided by 3
B. MAP − ICP
C. ICP − DBP
,D. [(DBP + 2) × SBP] divided by 3 Corect Answer MAP − ICP =
CPP
Normal range (mmHg): 70-90
You are managing a patient who has been diagnosed with hepatic
encephalopathy. His ammonia levels are elevated. Your
management in preparing this patient for transport is to inhibit
elevated protein level by...
A. Administering whole blood
B. Stop GI bleeding and evacuate bowel of blood
C. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
D. Aggressive pain control Corect Answer Stop GI bleeding and
evacuate bowel of blood
Bowel cleansing is the mainstay of therapy for hepatic
encephalopathy. Evacuation of gutderived toxins (intestinal blood,
bacteria) and administration of Lactulose (orally or as an enema)
is one of the cornerstones of the treatment of hepatic
encephalopathy.
Lactulose may be given orally to acidify the ammonia in the colon
and form the ammonium that can be easily excreted. It is used as
a laxative for evacuating blood from intestines and for reducing
, ammonia production by intestinal bacteria. Gastrointestinal
bleeding should also be controlled.
Grey Turner's sign may indicate?
A. Meningitis
B. Splenic injury
C. Retroperitoneal bleed
D. Gallbladder Corect Answer Retroperitoneal bleed
Grey Turner's sign refers to bruising of the flanks and can indicate
retroperitoneal or intraabdominal bleeding, which can take up to
24-48 hours to show up on assessment. It can be caused by
acute pancreatitis, blunt abdominal trauma, ruptured abdominal
aortic aneurysm, or ruptured/hemorrhagic ectopic pregnancy.
Most commonly seen injuries with side impact or "lay it down"
motorcycle crashes include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Open fracture of the femur
B. Pelvic fractures
C. Abrasions to the affected side
D. Tibia/fibula or malleolus fractures Corect Answer Pelvic
fractures
FREQUENTLY EXAMINED QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES 2026 FPC- CFRN EXAM
RATED A+
You have been requested to transport a twenty-year-old female
from an ICU with a history of TCA overdose two hours prior to
your arrival at the sending facility. Your cardiovascular
assessment of the patient would most likely include all of the
following with this type of toxicity, EXCEPT...
A. Early sinus bradycardia
B. Widening QRS
C. Prolonged QT and PR interval
D. Early tachycardia Corect Answer Early sinus bradycardia
Sinus tachycardia is the most common cardiac disturbance seen
following TCA overdose.
Rhabdomyolysis treatment Corect Answer - preventing shock and
preserving kidney fxn
,- NS with sodium bicarbonate
Your patient presents with ABG's of pH 7.39, pCO2 68 HCO3 32,
pO2 82. He has history of COPD and weighs 65 kg. He presents
with a history of SOB for 3 days with a RR 20 and is on 4
L/minute of oxygen by NC. He speaks in four- to five-word
sentences. What acid-base disorder is present?
A. Metabolic acidosis with partial compensation
B. Respiratory acidosis with complete compensation
C. Metabolic alkalosis with no compensation
D. Respiratory alkalosis with no compensation Corect Answer
Respiratory acidosis with complete compensation.
The pCO2 is elevated, which is the primary disorder, and the
compensatory response is the increased HCO3. The pH is
normal, so there is complete compensation.
Which formula can be used when calculating a cerebral perfusion
pressure (CPP)?
A. [(DBP × 2) + SBP] divided by 3
B. MAP − ICP
C. ICP − DBP
,D. [(DBP + 2) × SBP] divided by 3 Corect Answer MAP − ICP =
CPP
Normal range (mmHg): 70-90
You are managing a patient who has been diagnosed with hepatic
encephalopathy. His ammonia levels are elevated. Your
management in preparing this patient for transport is to inhibit
elevated protein level by...
A. Administering whole blood
B. Stop GI bleeding and evacuate bowel of blood
C. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
D. Aggressive pain control Corect Answer Stop GI bleeding and
evacuate bowel of blood
Bowel cleansing is the mainstay of therapy for hepatic
encephalopathy. Evacuation of gutderived toxins (intestinal blood,
bacteria) and administration of Lactulose (orally or as an enema)
is one of the cornerstones of the treatment of hepatic
encephalopathy.
Lactulose may be given orally to acidify the ammonia in the colon
and form the ammonium that can be easily excreted. It is used as
a laxative for evacuating blood from intestines and for reducing
, ammonia production by intestinal bacteria. Gastrointestinal
bleeding should also be controlled.
Grey Turner's sign may indicate?
A. Meningitis
B. Splenic injury
C. Retroperitoneal bleed
D. Gallbladder Corect Answer Retroperitoneal bleed
Grey Turner's sign refers to bruising of the flanks and can indicate
retroperitoneal or intraabdominal bleeding, which can take up to
24-48 hours to show up on assessment. It can be caused by
acute pancreatitis, blunt abdominal trauma, ruptured abdominal
aortic aneurysm, or ruptured/hemorrhagic ectopic pregnancy.
Most commonly seen injuries with side impact or "lay it down"
motorcycle crashes include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Open fracture of the femur
B. Pelvic fractures
C. Abrasions to the affected side
D. Tibia/fibula or malleolus fractures Corect Answer Pelvic
fractures
