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PHARMACOLOGY HESI 315 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS|| GUARANTEED PASS||LATEST VERSION || ALREADY GRADED A+

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PHARMACOLOGY HESI 315 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS|| GUARANTEED PASS||LATEST VERSION || ALREADY GRADED A+ For what reason might a nurse administer androgen injections to a 9-year-old boy? A) Ovarian atrophy B) Dwarfism C) Acromegaly D) Hypogonadism - ANSWER-: D Androgens are used pharmacologically to treat hypogonadism or to increase protein growth and red blood cell production. Androgens are not used in a male to treat ovarian atrophy. Androgens are not used to treat dwarfism or acromegaly. A patient is taking low-dose corticosteroids on a long-term basis for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse assesses this patient knowing prolonged use of corticosteroids puts the patient at risk for what? A) Adrenal storm B) Adrenal atrophy C) Stunted growth D) Hypothalamic insufficiency - ANSWER-:B Prolonged use of corticosteroids suppresses the normal hypothalamic-pituitary axis and leads to adrenal atrophy from lack of stimulation. The other options are all distracters for this question with no connection to long-term use of corticosteroids. The nurse administers prednisone orally at 8 am. When would the nurse expect the drug to reach peak effect? A) 9 to 10 am B) 12 to 1 pm C) 8:30 to 9:00 am D) 4 to 6 pm - ANSWER- A: Prednisone's peak effect occurs 1 to 2 hours after administering the drug. If given at 8 am, the expected peak would occur between 9 and 10 am. Nursing care for the postoperative patient requiring long-term glucocorticoid therapy will be directed at overcoming what adverse effect of the drug? A) Poor wound healing B) Inflammation C) Autoimmune response D) Lack of mobility - ANSWER-:A Patients taking long-term glucocorticoid therapy will have impaired wound healing so nursing care is directed toward promoting healing. The drug has an anti-inflammatory effect so that would not need to be overcome. There is no autoimmune response or lack of mobility so these do not have to be overcome. The nurse is teaching a class for his or her peers about glucocorticoids. What will the nurse say is initially blocked, resulting in the drug's anti-inflammatory action? A) Arachidonic acid B) Phagocytes C) Lymphocytes D) Antibodies - ANSWER-: A Glucocorticoids block the actions of arachidonic acid, which leads to a decrease in the formation of prostaglandins and leukotrienes. They also impair the ability of phagocytes to leave the bloodstream and move to injured tissues; they inhibit the ability of lymphocytes to act within the immune system, including blocking the production of antibodies. Blocking arachidonic acid is, however, the initial action. What hormones does the adrenal medulla secrete? A) Renin and erythropoietin B) Norepinephrine and epinephrine C) Epinephrine and dopamine D) Dopamine and serotonin – ANSWER-:B The adrenal medulla is actually part of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS). It is a ganglion of neurons that releases the neurotransmitters norepinephrine and epinephrine into circulation when the SNS is stimulated.

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PHARMACOLOGY HESI 315
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PHARMACOLOGY HESI 315

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Subido en
14 de julio de 2025
Número de páginas
41
Escrito en
2024/2025
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PHARMACOLOGY HESI 315 EXAM
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS|| GUARANTEED
PASS||LATEST VERSION || ALREADY GRADED
A+



For what reason might a nurse administer androgen injections to a 9-year-old
boy?
A) Ovarian atrophy
B) Dwarfism
C) Acromegaly
D) Hypogonadism - ANSWER-: D
Androgens are used pharmacologically to treat hypogonadism or to increase
protein growth and red blood cell production. Androgens are not used in a male
to treat ovarian atrophy. Androgens are not used to treat dwarfism or
acromegaly.


A patient is taking low-dose corticosteroids on a long-term basis for chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse assesses this patient knowing
prolonged use of corticosteroids puts the patient at risk for what?
A) Adrenal storm
B) Adrenal atrophy
C) Stunted growth
D) Hypothalamic insufficiency - ANSWER-:B
Prolonged use of corticosteroids suppresses the normal hypothalamic-pituitary
axis and leads to adrenal atrophy from lack of stimulation. The other options are
all distracters for this question with no connection to long-term use of
corticosteroids.

,The nurse administers prednisone orally at 8 am. When would the nurse expect
the drug to reach peak effect?
A) 9 to 10 am
B) 12 to 1 pm
C) 8:30 to 9:00 am
D) 4 to 6 pm - ANSWER- A:
Prednisone's peak effect occurs 1 to 2 hours after administering the drug. If
given at 8 am, the expected peak would occur between 9 and 10 am.
Nursing care for the postoperative patient requiring long-term glucocorticoid
therapy will be directed at overcoming what adverse effect of the drug?
A) Poor wound healing
B) Inflammation
C) Autoimmune response
D) Lack of mobility - ANSWER-:A
Patients taking long-term glucocorticoid therapy will have impaired wound
healing so nursing care is directed toward promoting healing. The drug has an
anti-inflammatory effect so that would not need to be overcome. There is no
autoimmune response or lack of mobility so these do not have to be overcome.


The nurse is teaching a class for his or her peers about glucocorticoids. What
will the nurse say is initially blocked, resulting in the drug's anti-inflammatory
action?
A) Arachidonic acid
B) Phagocytes
C) Lymphocytes
D) Antibodies - ANSWER-: A
Glucocorticoids block the actions of arachidonic acid, which leads to a decrease
in the formation of prostaglandins and leukotrienes. They also impair the ability
of phagocytes to leave the bloodstream and move to injured tissues; they inhibit
the ability of lymphocytes to act within the immune system, including blocking

,the production of antibodies. Blocking arachidonic acid is, however, the initial
action.


What hormones does the adrenal medulla secrete?
A) Renin and erythropoietin
B) Norepinephrine and epinephrine
C) Epinephrine and dopamine
D) Dopamine and serotonin – ANSWER-:B
The adrenal medulla is actually part of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS).
It is a ganglion of neurons that releases the neurotransmitters norepinephrine
and epinephrine into circulation when the SNS is stimulated.


The adrenal cortex responds to adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which
responds to corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus in a
daily pattern called what?
A) Pituitary rhythm
B) hypothalamic-pituitary axis
C) Diurnal rhythm
D) Circadian rhythm - ANSWER-Feedback:
The adrenal cortex responds to ACTH released from the anterior pituitary.
ACTH, in turn, responds to CRH released from the hypothalamus. This happens
regularly during a normal day in what is called "diurnal rhythm." Pituitary
rhythm is a distracter; the term does not exist. The hypothalamic- pituitary axis
involves the interaction between the two glands. Circadian rhythm involves
when people prefer to be most active, such as people who say they are "morning
people."


A 9-year-old boy is taking testosterone injections for treatment of
hypogonadism. What should be measured every 6 months on this child?
A) Liver function test (LFT)
B) Cholesterol level

, C) Vision
D) hand and wrist radiographs - ANSWER-:D
Because of the effects of these hormones on epiphyseal closure, children should
be closely monitored with hand and wrist radiographs before treatment and
every 6 months after treatment. It would not be necessary to measure LFTs,
cholesterol levels, or the child's vision.


The nurse assesses the patient taking anabolic steroids for what serious adverse
effects?
A) Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
B) Elevated blood glucose level
C) Bradycardia
D) Jaundice - ANSWER-:D
Anabolic steroids all have black box warnings as alerts to the potentially serious
effects of liver tumors, hepatitis, and blood lipid level changes that might be
associated with increased risk of coronary artery disease. As a result, the nurse
should assess for jaundice that could be an early indication of liver dysfunction.
Elevated BUN, blood glucose levels, and bradycardia are not commonly
reported adverse effects.


An older adult African American patient comes to the clinic and is diagnosed
with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). The physician orders oral flurazepam
30 mg. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Teach the patient about the prescribed medication.
B) Administer the first dose of medication.
C) Tell patient to take first dosage after driving home.
D) Talk to the physician about the dosage. - ANSWER-:D
If an anxiolytic or hypnotic agent is the drug of choice for an African American
patient, the smallest possible dose should be used, and the patient should be
monitored very closely during the first week of treatment. Dosage adjustments
are necessary to achieve the most effective dose with the fewest adverse effects.
In addition, older adults also require careful titration of dosage. Older patients
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