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NSG 6420 Verified Multiple Choice and Conceptual Actual Emended Exam Questions With Reviewed 100% Correct Detailed Answers Guaranteed Pass!!Current Update

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NSG 6420 Verified Multiple Choice and Conceptual Actual Emended Exam Questions With Reviewed 100% Correct Detailed Answers Guaranteed Pass!!Current Update 1. An athlete presents with complaints of sharp pain over the right shin that has gradually and subtly worsened over time. The patient has been training for a marathon. In considering the possibility of a stress fracture, which statement by the NP is NOT correct? a) x rays may not indicate a stress fracture, even if one is present b) Diagnosis can be made based on a thorough h&p c) A stress fracture is not likely because the patient is in otherwise good health d) Without point tenderness, a stress fracture is unlikely - ANSWER C A stress fracture is not likely because the patient is in otherwise good health 2. An adult patient is diagnosed with classic migraine headache. The headaches are frequent and debilitating, The patient is offered an abortive therapy, but requests a medication for prophylaxis instead. The NP would recommend: a) Triptan b) Ibuprofen Q 8-12 hrs c) A beta-adrenergic blocking agent d) Thiazide diuretic - ANSWER C-A beta-adrenergic blocking agent 3. In addition to a microcytic anemia, patients with beta thalassemia may present with: A- jaundice. B- masked facies C-lymphadenopathy. D- hypercalcemia. - ANSWER A- jaundice. 4. A 4-month old infant presents with several blue-black macular lesions over the buttocks and lower back area. The NP suspects congenital dermal melanocytosis (Mongolian spots), but should include in the differential diagnosis: A- Cafe au lait spots B-Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura C-Child abuse D-Hemangioma - ANSWER C-Child abuse 5. The most effective treatment approach to noninfectious bursitis includes: A-a prophylactic broad-spectrum antibiotic and compression dressing applied at the site B- A intra-articular corticosteriod injection and concomitant oral NSAID C-A tapering regiment of oral corticosteroid therapy and topical analgesic D-Increased fluids, frequent active ROM in the joints, and a topical analgesic - ANSWER B- A intra-articular corticosteriod injection and concomitant oral NSAID

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NSG 6420 Verified Multiple Choice and Conceptual
Actual Emended Exam Questions With Reviewed
100% Correct Detailed Answers

Guaranteed Pass!!Current Update


1. An athlete presents with complaints of sharp pain over the right shin that
has gradually and subtly worsened over time. The patient has been training
for a marathon. In considering the possibility of a stress fracture, which
statement by the NP is NOT correct?
a) x rays may not indicate a stress fracture, even if one is present
b) Diagnosis can be made based on a thorough h&p
c) A stress fracture is not likely because the patient is in otherwise good
health
d) Without point tenderness, a stress fracture is unlikely - ANSWER C-
A stress fracture is not likely because the patient is in otherwise good
health


2. An adult patient is diagnosed with classic migraine headache. The
headaches are frequent and debilitating, The patient is offered an abortive
therapy, but requests a medication for prophylaxis instead. The NP would
recommend:
a) Triptan
b) Ibuprofen Q 8-12 hrs
c) A beta-adrenergic blocking agent
d) Thiazide diuretic - ANSWER C-A beta-adrenergic blocking agent


3. In addition to a microcytic anemia, patients with beta thalassemia may
present with:

, A- jaundice.
B- masked facies
C-lymphadenopathy.

D- hypercalcemia. - ANSWER A- jaundice.


4. A 4-month old infant presents with several blue-black macular lesions over
the buttocks and lower back area. The NP suspects congenital dermal
melanocytosis (Mongolian spots), but should include in the differential
diagnosis:
A- Cafe au lait spots
B-Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura
C-Child abuse

D-Hemangioma - ANSWER C-Child abuse


5. The most effective treatment approach to noninfectious bursitis includes:
A-a prophylactic broad-spectrum antibiotic and compression dressing applied
at the site
B- A intra-articular corticosteriod injection and concomitant oral NSAID
C-A tapering regiment of oral corticosteroid therapy and topical analgesic
D-Increased fluids, frequent active ROM in the joints, and a topical analgesic -
ANSWER B- A intra-articular corticosteriod injection and concomitant oral
NSAID


6. An active 82-year-old man in good health complains "I don't see as well as I
used to and my eyes are very sensitive to glare". His near and distant visual

, acuity is diminished and he has a bilateral white pupillary reflex. The most
likely diagnosis is:
a. ocular tumor
b. open angle glaucoma
c. cataracts
d. retinopathy - ANSWER c. cataracts


7. A patient is being evaluated for a recurrent furuncle that is large and
painful. This is the patient's third episode in the past 6 months. Which one
of the following is NOT an appropriate intervention?
A-Incision and drainage
B- Prescription of prophylactic antibiotics
C- Screening the patient for diabetic mellitus

D- Application of moist heat to promote drainage - ANSWER B-
Prescription of prophylactic antibiotics


8. The risk factor that is NOT associated with the development of a first
episode of depression in an older adult patient is:
A-Social isolation
B-Female sex
C-The use of opioids

D-Sleep deprivation - ANSWER B-Female sex


9. A pediatric patient presents with honey-colored crusty lesions around the
right side of the mouth and extending to the right cheek. The NP diagnosis

, the patient with nonbullous impetigo. The most appropriate intervention
would be to:
A- recommend gentle cleansing to remove the crusts using antibacterial
soap and a washcloth
B- prescribe a topical antibiotic and instruct the caregiver in providing
good wound care with cleanser
C- Instruct the caregiver on providing good wound care with an
antibacterial cleaner and prescribe an oral antihistamine

D-Prescribe an oral antihistamine and topical steroid - ANSWER B-
prescribe a topical antibiotic and instruct the caregiver in providing good
wound care with cleanser


10.The recommended alternative treatment regimen for a patient who tests
positive for gonorrhea and has an allergy to macrolide antibiotics is dual
therapy with Ceftriaxone and:
A-Azithromycin
B-Clarithromycin
C- Doxycycline

D- Cefixime - ANSWER C- Doxycycline


11.A 50-year-old nonsmoker with no comorbidities presents to the clinic and
is diagnosed with community acquired pneumonia. The patient's vital signs
are normal except for temp of 101.6F. A sputum specimen is collected and
sent for culture and sensitivity. What action should the NP take?
A- Wait for culture before starting antibiotics
B- Start Clarithromycin 500 mg BID for 5 days
C- Start Penicillin IV 500 mg QID for 7-10 days

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Institución
NSG 6420
Grado
NSG 6420

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Subido en
11 de julio de 2025
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Escrito en
2024/2025
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