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SARAH MICHELLE CRASH COURSE STUDY GUIDE SOLUTION NEW UPDATE 2025 COMPLETE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH 100% ACCURATE DETAILED SOLUTIONS||ALREADY GRADED

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SARAH MICHELLE CRASH COURSE STUDY GUIDE SOLUTION NEW UPDATE 2025 COMPLETE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH 100% ACCURATE DETAILED SOLUTIONS||ALREADY GRADED!!!! 1. probable signs of pregnancy. - ANSWER Positive urine pregnancy tests as well as a positive serum hCG are examples of probable signs of pregnancy. Her complaints of nausea, fatigue, and amenorrhea would be subjective data and would fall under presumptive signs of pregnancy. Positive signs of pregnancy include objective findings from the provider such as fetal heart tones, palpation of the fetus or ultrasound. 2. A risk factor for postmenopausal osteoporosis is: - ANSWER A risk factor for postmenopausal osteoporosis is: 3. The most common skin cancer is: - ANSWER basal cell carcinoma. 4. sore throat and anterior cervical adenopathy, which causative agent would be suspected? - ANSWER Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus 5. Acute otitis media has which of the following characteristics? - ANSWER Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus 6. risk factor for development of deep vein thromboembolism and pulmonary embolism? - ANSWER Visceral malignancy 7. MOST common risk factor for developing severe hyperbilirubinemia in the newborn? - ANSWER Blood incompatibility with the mother 8. When completing the INITIAL assessment for depression in geriatric adults, the nurse practitioner should evaluate: - ANSWER mental status examination. 9. Which of the following conditions exacerbate urinary incontinence? - ANSWER Impacted stool and atrophic vaginitis 10. The best medication for a patient who complains of irritable bowel syndrome with cramping is: - ANSWER dicyclomine (Bentyl). 11. Which of the following neurological signs are characteristic of the patient with Alzheimer's disease? - ANSWER Gait disorder and impaired stereognosis 12. The sound intensity of a grade III/VI heart murmur is typically described as: - ANSWER medium intensity. 13. Major causes of chronic kidney disease include: - ANSWER amyloidosis and systemic lupus erythematosus. 14. Which of the following is a common cause of acne? - ANSWER Increase in androgens 15. 40 pack-year smoking history complains of painful cramping in the leg muscles that occurs after walking for 20 minutes. - ANSWER intermittent claudication. 16. ntermittent retrosternal burning. He has gained 30 lb in the past year. - ANSWER gastroesophageal reflux. 17. after a football practice complaining of limping due to anterior left knee pain. The pain has gradually increased over the past 2 weeks but is relieved with rest. The patient denies any trauma, prior surgeries, or medical history. Physical examination reveals tenderness and swelling of the tibial tubercle and reproduction of pain with resisted knee extension. - ANSWER Osgood-Schlatter disease. 18. A geriatric patient presents with a bump on the vulva, associated with pruritis and malodorous drainage. Examination reveals a raised, ulcerated lesion. - ANSWER vulvar cancer. 19. Which hepatitis B serology testing results would indicate that the patient has chronic hepatitis? - ANSWER HBsAg = positive, IgM anti-HBc = negative 20. unable to "make it to the bathroom in time," and wets herself. Which type of incontinence is most likely? - ANSWER Urge 21. A geriatric patient with anemia, back pain, osteoporosis, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate should be evaluated for: - ANSWER multiple myeloma 22. multiple myeloma - ANSWER Increased heart rate 23. A 12-year-old child diagnosed with mild persistent asthma has a peak expiratory flow (PEF) of less than 80% of predicted. The most appropriate action would be to: - ANSWER add a long-acting beta agonist to the inhaled corticosteroid. 24. acute bacterial sinusitis. The patient is allergic to penicillin and sulfa drugs. Which of the following antibiotics should be prescribed? - ANSWER Erythromycin (Erythrocin) 25. After discussing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) results indicative of a rotator cuff tear, the patient asks how this can happen. All of the following are correct - ANSWER Repetitive lifting and overhead motion overtime causes stress on the rotator cuff muscles and tendons Falling on an outstretched hand A sudden pull on the shoulder causing a jerking motion 26. recent diagnosis of coarctation of the aorta and is seeking more information about the topic. Which of the following statements is correct - ANSWER Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital birth defect where the aorta is more narrow than it should be."" With this condition, the left ventricle has to work harder than normal in order to pump blood effectively." "It can be common to see decreased femoral pulses with this condition." 27. Ipratropium (Atrovent) contraindications - ANSWER Ipratropium (Atrovent) belongs to a class of drugs called short acting muscarinic antagonists. This drug class is notorious for having anticholinergic side effects, which exacerbate many known conditions. Anticholinergics have a wide array of side effects such as dry mouth, blurry vision, urinary hesitancy and constipation. In BPH, anticholinergics would worsen the symptoms of urinary hesitancy. In acute-angle closure glaucoma, anticholinergics can induce this condition to occur again and it is considered to be a medical emergency. In peptic ulcer disease, anticholinergics slow down the process of gastric emptying, therefore exacerbating any current ulcers. 28. having jaw pain while eating lunch this afternoon. She states she's been especially tired and has had some blurry vision recently and attributes this to a nagging headache near her left eye. After performing a thorough physical assessment, which of the following steps should the nurse practitioner take next? - ANSWER Refer to an ophthalmologist for a biopsy Jaw claudication, or pain in the jaw with chewing, headache, and blurry vision is suspicious for temporal arteritis. We would want to refer this patient for a temporal artery biopsy as this is the only way to make a definitive diagnosis. 29. atopic dermatitis on the underside of his chin. He states it is extremely itchy and the nurse practitioner notes some weeping erythematous skin on exam. Which of the following topical steroid options would be the least appropriate to prescribe to this patient? - ANSWER knowing the basics of topical steroid treatment is important for practice and the exam. The low potency steroids like low percentage hydrocortisone and alclometasone dipropionate are suitable options for the face as they are Class 7 and 6 steroids, respectively. High potency steroids, like clobetasol, should never be used on the face as they can cause skin sloughing. 30. A patient with a history of recurrent otitis media presents with a complaint of hearing loss in their right ear. On the otoscopic exam there is a white, cauliflower looking growth present. Which of the following assessment findings is consistent with this diagnosis? - ANSWER When performing the Rinne test on the affected side, BC>AC This patient is presenting with a cholesteatoma in their right ear which causes conductive hearing loss. A normal Weber test would have no lateralization. In a conductive hearing loss, the sound would lateralize to the affected ear, in this case the patient's right ear. In a sensorineural hearing loss, the Weber test would result in sound lateralized to the unaffected ear. A normal Rinne test is AC>BC (air conduction > bone conduction). In a conductive hearing loss, BC>AC (bone conduction > air conduction). 31. worst candidate for the use of a thiazolidinedione (TZD) for treatment of their diabetes? - ANSWER A patient with a recent ejection fraction of 31% he thiazolidinedione drug class has a black box warning for those with various types of heart failure. This black box warning is due to increased sodium and fluid retention, which can lead to serious exacerbations in these patients. 32. when should phototherapy will be initiated in a newborn with jaundice - ANSWER If the bilirubin level is 15 mg/dl or greater, phototherapy will be initiated. 33. 25 year old male and notes a single, skin-colored, cauliflowerlike lesion on his penis. He denies associated pain. Upon further examination, the lesion is soft and 5 mm in diameter. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? - ANSWER Condylomata acuminata Condylomata acuminata (anogenital warts) may present as single lesions or in groups. They range from skin-colored, to erythematous, to brown and may be flat, dome-shaped, cauliflower-like, or plaque-like. They are typically asymptomatic, consistent with this patient's experience. Molluscum contagiosum commonly present as umbilicated papules while syphilis commonly presents as a nontender, indurated lesion. Bowenoid papulosis, a premalignant condition, presents as several red papules in the gential area. 34. Which act required nurse practitioners to acquire an NPI number in order to bill Medicare? - ANSWER Balanced Budget Act 35. Which of the following cranial nerves, when infected with the herpes zoster (shingles) virus, may cause blindness? - ANSWER CN V 36. 3 year old daughter in today for a sick visit. He reports that for the last 3 days she has had a fever of 101.3 to 102.4, a runny nose, and red rash across her face. Today upon awakening, he noted a rash on her chest and the soles of her feet. - ANSWER Fifths disease (also known as erythema infectiosum), caused by parvovirus B19, is more common in children than adults. It typically begins with a fever and progresses into the development of a rash. The rash classically appears as a slapped cheek rash on the face and a lacy net like rash on the body. This dad should be informed that since the rash has appeared, she is no longer contagious and he can continue treating the fever with acetaminophen (Tylenol) and ibuprofen (Motrin) at home and ensure she is receiving adequate hydration and rest. 37. risk factors for peripheral arterial disease - ANSWER smoking, diabetes, hypertension, atherosclerosis, hyperlipidemia, cerebrovascular disease 38. partial rotator cuff tear, the nurse practitioner discusses all of the following treatment options with the patient - ANSWER Physical therapy Meloxicam Corticosteroid injections Surgical repair is only for FULL thickness rotator tears 39. test that assesses rotator cuff tears - ANSWER the drop arm test is the only one that assesses rotator cuff tears. It is performed by passively abducting the shoulder and asking the patient to slowly lower their arm back down. If a tear is present, the arm will drop to the side. 40. Signs and symptoms of a torn rotator cuff - ANSWER Signs and symptoms of a torn rotator cuff most often include weakness and pain with overhead movement. Pain is most prevalent at night and may cause sleep disturbances. Clicking, crepitus, and limited range of motion are common objective findings.

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Subido en
3 de julio de 2025
Número de páginas
33
Escrito en
2024/2025
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SARAH MICHELLE CRASH COURSE STUDY
GUIDE SOLUTION NEW UPDATE 2025
COMPLETE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH 100%
ACCURATE DETAILED SOLUTIONS||ALREADYD
GRADED!!!!
1. probable signs of pregnancy. - ANSWER ✓ Positive urine pregnancy
tests as well as a positive serum hCG are examples of probable signs
of pregnancy.
Her complaints of nausea, fatigue, and amenorrhea would be subjective
data and would fall under presumptive signs of pregnancy.
Positive signs of pregnancy include objective findings from the provider
such as fetal heart tones, palpation of the fetus or ultrasound.

2. A risk factor for postmenopausal osteoporosis is: - ANSWER ✓ A risk
factor for postmenopausal osteoporosis is:

3. The most common skin cancer is: - ANSWER ✓ basal cell carcinoma.

4. sore throat and anterior cervical adenopathy, which causative agent
would be suspected? - ANSWER ✓ Group A beta-hemolytic
Streptococcus

5. Acute otitis media has which of the following characteristics? -
ANSWER ✓ Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus

6. risk factor for development of deep vein thromboembolism and
pulmonary embolism? - ANSWER ✓ Visceral malignancy

7. MOST common risk factor for developing severe hyperbilirubinemia
in the newborn? - ANSWER ✓ Blood incompatibility with the mother

8. When completing the INITIAL assessment for depression in geriatric
adults, the nurse practitioner should evaluate: - ANSWER ✓ mental
status examination.

,9. Which of the following conditions exacerbate urinary incontinence? -
ANSWER ✓ Impacted stool and atrophic vaginitis

10. The best medication for a patient who complains of irritable
bowel syndrome with cramping is: - ANSWER ✓ dicyclomine (Bentyl).

11. Which of the following neurological signs are characteristic of
the patient with Alzheimer's disease? - ANSWER ✓ Gait disorder and
impaired stereognosis

12. The sound intensity of a grade III/VI heart murmur is typically
described as: - ANSWER ✓ medium intensity.

13. Major causes of chronic kidney disease include: - ANSWER ✓
amyloidosis and systemic lupus erythematosus.

14. Which of the following is a common cause of acne? - ANSWER
✓ Increase in androgens

15. 40 pack-year smoking history complains of painful cramping in
the leg muscles that occurs after walking for 20 minutes. - ANSWER
✓ intermittent claudication.

16. ntermittent retrosternal burning. He has gained 30 lb in the past
year. - ANSWER ✓ gastroesophageal reflux.

17. after a football practice complaining of limping due to anterior
left knee pain. The pain has gradually increased over the past 2
weeks but is relieved with rest. The patient denies any trauma, prior
surgeries, or medical history. Physical examination reveals
tenderness and swelling of the tibial tubercle and reproduction of pain
with resisted knee extension. - ANSWER ✓ Osgood-Schlatter
disease.

18. A geriatric patient presents with a bump on the vulva,
associated with pruritis and malodorous drainage. Examination
reveals a raised, ulcerated lesion. - ANSWER ✓ vulvar cancer.

, 19. Which hepatitis B serology testing results would indicate that
the patient has chronic hepatitis? - ANSWER ✓ HBsAg = positive,
IgM anti-HBc = negative

20. unable to "make it to the bathroom in time," and wets herself.
Which type of incontinence is most likely? - ANSWER ✓ Urge

21. A geriatric patient with anemia, back pain, osteoporosis, and
elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate should be evaluated for: -
ANSWER ✓ multiple myeloma

22. multiple myeloma - ANSWER ✓ Increased heart rate

23. A 12-year-old child diagnosed with mild persistent asthma has
a peak expiratory flow (PEF) of less than 80% of predicted. The most
appropriate action would be to: - ANSWER ✓ add a long-acting beta
agonist to the inhaled corticosteroid.

24. acute bacterial sinusitis. The patient is allergic to penicillin and
sulfa drugs. Which of the following antibiotics should be prescribed? -
ANSWER ✓ Erythromycin (Erythrocin)

25. After discussing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) results
indicative of a rotator cuff tear, the patient asks how this can happen.
All of the following are correct - ANSWER ✓ Repetitive lifting and
overhead motion overtime causes stress on the rotator cuff muscles
and tendons
Falling on an outstretched hand
A sudden pull on the shoulder causing a jerking motion

26. recent diagnosis of coarctation of the aorta and is seeking more
information about the topic. Which of the following statements is
correct - ANSWER ✓ Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital birth
defect where the aorta is more narrow than it should be.""
With this condition, the left ventricle has to work harder than normal in
order to pump blood effectively."
"It can be common to see decreased femoral pulses with this condition."

, 27. Ipratropium (Atrovent) contraindications - ANSWER ✓
Ipratropium (Atrovent) belongs to a class of drugs called short acting
muscarinic antagonists.
This drug class is notorious for having anticholinergic side effects, which
exacerbate many known conditions.
Anticholinergics have a wide array of side effects such as dry mouth, blurry
vision, urinary hesitancy and constipation.
In BPH, anticholinergics would worsen the symptoms of urinary hesitancy.
In acute-angle closure glaucoma, anticholinergics can induce this condition
to occur again and it is considered to be a medical emergency.
In peptic ulcer disease, anticholinergics slow down the process of gastric
emptying, therefore exacerbating any current ulcers.

28. having jaw pain while eating lunch this afternoon. She states
she's been especially tired and has had some blurry vision recently
and attributes this to a nagging headache near her left eye. After
performing a thorough physical assessment, which of the following
steps should the nurse practitioner take next? - ANSWER ✓ Refer to
an ophthalmologist for a biopsy
Jaw claudication, or pain in the jaw with chewing, headache, and blurry
vision is suspicious for temporal arteritis.
We would want to refer this patient for a temporal artery biopsy as this is
the only way to make a definitive diagnosis.

29. atopic dermatitis on the underside of his chin. He states it is
extremely itchy and the nurse practitioner notes some weeping
erythematous skin on exam. Which of the following topical steroid
options would be the least appropriate to prescribe to this patient? -
ANSWER ✓ knowing the basics of topical steroid treatment is
important for practice and the exam.
The low potency steroids like low percentage hydrocortisone and
alclometasone dipropionate are suitable options for the face as they are
Class 7 and 6 steroids, respectively.
High potency steroids, like clobetasol, should never be used on the face as
they can cause skin sloughing.

30. A patient with a history of recurrent otitis media presents with a
complaint of hearing loss in their right ear. On the otoscopic exam
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