,PA Success Series: 7th Edition MCQ Test
Bank
Based on A Comprehensive Review for the
Certification and Recertification
Examinations for PAs, 7th Edition
By Claire Babcock O’Connell & Thea
Cogan-Drew
“Your Ultimate PA Exam MCQ Workbook: All Chapters, All
Topics, Fully Explained”
“Ace the PANCE & PANRE: 7th Edition-Based Complete
Question Review Guide”
table of contents
1 Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology 2 Pulmonology
Disorders of the Eyes Infectious Disorders
Disorders of the Ears Neoplastic Diseases
Disorders of the Nose, Sinus, and Throat Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases
Pleural Diseases
Pulmonary Circulation
Restrictive Pulmonary Diseases
, 1 Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology 2 Pulmonology
Other Pulmonary Diseases
3 Cardiovascular Medicine 4 Hematology
Major Principles of Cardiac Care Red Cell Disorders
Hypertension White Cell Disorders
Heart Failure (HF) Lymphomas and Myeloma
Shock Platelet and Bleeding Disorders
Hypotension Thrombotic Disorders and Hypercoagulable Conditions
Atherosclerosis
Ischemic Heart Disease (Angina)
Acute Coronary Syndromes
Valvular Disorders
Cardiomyopathies
Congenital Heart Anomalies
Rate and Rhythm Disorders
Conduction Disturbances
Pericardial Disorders
Infective Endocarditis
Rheumatic Heart Disease
Peripheral Vascular Disorders
Giant Cell Arteritis
Aortic Aneurysms
5 Gastroenterology 6 Nephrology and Urology
Diseases of the Esophagus Renal Failure
Diseases of the Stomach Glomerular Disorders
Diseases of the Small Intestine and Colon Polycystic Kidney Disease
Diseases of the Rectum and Anus Nephrolithiasis
Appendicitis Disorders of Salt and Water
Diseases of the Pancreas Electrolyte Disorders
Diseases of the Biliary Tract Acid–Base Disorders
Diseases of the Liver Urinary Tract Infection
Hernias Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
Congenital Abnormalities Incontinence
Nutritional Deficiencies Neoplasms of the Urinary Tract
Metabolic Disorders Male Reproductive Disorders
, 7 Gynecology 8 Obstetrics
Menstrual Disorders Routine Prenatal Care and Prenatal Diagnostic Testing
Uterine Disorders High-Risk Pregnancy
Ovarian Disorders Complications of Pregnancy
Cervical Dysplasia and Neoplasia Labor and Delivery
Vaginal and Vulvar Neoplasms Puerperium
Breast Disorders
Contraceptive Methods
Infertility
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
9 Rheumatology and Orthopedics (Musculoskeletal System) 10 Endocrinology
Arthritis/Rheumatologic Conditions Parathyroid Disorders
Bone and Joint Disorders Thyroid Disorders
Fractures, Dislocations, Sprains, and Strains Pituitary Gland
Disorders of the Head and Neck Diabetes Mellitus
Disorders of the Shoulder and Upper Extremity Hyperlipidemia
Disorders of the Back Adrenal Gland Disorders
Disorders of the Hip and Lower Extremity
11 Neurology 12 Psychiatry
Diagnosis of Neurologic Disorders Diagnosis of Psychiatric Disorders
Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic
Cerebrovascular Disease
Disorders
Seizure Disorders Somatic Symptom Disorders
Multiple Sclerosis Mood Disorders
Dementia Personality Disorders
Headache Anxiety Disorders
Movement Disorders Trauma- and Stressor-Related Disorders
Diseases of Peripheral Nerves Eating Disorders
Central Nervous System Infection Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders
Central Nervous System Trauma Childhood Disorders
Primary Central Nervous System
Abuse and Neglect
Neoplasms
Sleep Disorders Sexual Violence and Rape
Uncomplicated Bereavement
13 Dermatology 14 Infectious Disease
Diagnosis Fever
, 13 Dermatology 14 Infectious Disease
Maculopapular and Plaque Disorders Sepsis
Vesiculobullous Disorders Bacterial Infections
Papulopustular Inflammatory Disorders Viral Infections
Localized Skin Infections Fungal Infections
Dermatophytosis Parasitic Infections
Parasitic Infestations Sexually Transmitted Diseases
Warts (Verrucae) Tick-Borne Illnesses
Tumors
Ulcers, Burns, and Wounds
Hair and Nails
Pigmentation Disorders
Angioedema and Urticaria
15 Surgery 16 Geriatrics
Patient History Background
Preoperative Evaluation Patient Care
Selected Common Diseases and Disorders with Unique
Trauma
Features in the Elderly
Burns Legal, Ethical, and Financial Issues
Orthopedic Injuries
Postoperative Complications
Laparoscopic and Bariatric
Surgery
17 Pediatrics
Examination of the Newborn
Problems Common to the Term Newborn
Developmental Milestones and Disorders
Inborn Errors of Metabolism, Chromosomal Abnormalities, and Common Dysmorphic
Syndromes
Failure to Thrive, Growth Delay, and Selected Nutritional Disorders of Childhood
Immunization of Infants and Children
Common Pediatric Poisonings
Common Pediatric Disorders
Caring for the Adolescent
,Chapter 1: Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology (Disorders of
the Eyes; Disorders of the Ears; Disorders of the Nose, Sinus,
and Throat)
Disorders of the Eyes (1–13)
1. A 7-year-old child presents with red, watery eyes and a
mucoid discharge after swimming in a community pool. Which
finding best distinguishes viral conjunctivitis from bacterial
conjunctivitis?
A. Presence of preauricular lymphadenopathy
B. Thick purulent discharge
C. Unilateral eye involvement
D. Itching more than burning
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Preauricular lymphadenopathy is common in viral
conjunctivitis. Bacterial tends to have purulent discharge; viral
is often bilateral with watery discharge and burning rather than
itching.
2. A 55-year-old diabetic patient complains of sudden, painless
vision loss described as a “curtain coming down.” Fundoscopy
reveals multiple dot-blot hemorrhages. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Central retinal artery occlusion
B. Central retinal vein occlusion
,C. Diabetic macular edema
D. Vitreous hemorrhage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden, painless vision loss with dot-blot
hemorrhages suggests central retinal vein occlusion. Artery
occlusion has a cherry-red spot; macular edema causes gradual
blurring; vitreous hemorrhage shows floaters and hazy red
reflex.
3. A 30-year-old woman reports intermittent episodes of
blurred vision and eye pain worsened by movement. On exam,
there is an afferent pupillary defect. Which is the most likely
cause?
A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
B. Optic neuritis
C. Uveitis
D. Corneal abrasion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Optic neuritis presents with painful eye movements,
afferent pupillary defect, and vision blurring. Angle-closure has
high IOP and fixed mid-dilated pupil; uveitis causes
photophobia; abrasion causes superficial pain and tearing
without pupillary defect.
,4. A patient has acute onset of halos around lights, severe eye
pain, headache, and a mid-dilated nonreactive pupil.
Intraocular pressure is elevated. The most appropriate initial
step is:
A. Emergent laser peripheral iridotomy
B. Topical beta-blocker and acetazolamide
C. Intravenous mannitol only
D. Prescribe topical corticosteroids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In acute angle-closure glaucoma, immediate
pressure lowering with topical β-blocker and systemic
acetazolamide is first, before definitive iridotomy. Mannitol
alone may be used but after first-line. Steroids are for uveitis.
5. In a patient with age-related macular degeneration, which
finding corresponds to the early dry form?
A. Neovascular membrane formation
B. Drusen deposits in Bruch’s membrane
C. Retinal hemorrhages
D. Vitreomacular traction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dry AMD is characterized by drusen. Neovascular
membrane and hemorrhages appear in wet AMD.
Vitreomacular traction is separate pathology.
,6. A 65-year-old smoker complains of peripheral vision loss.
Fundoscopy shows an elevated optic disc with blurred margins.
What is the most likely cause?
A. Glaucoma
B. Papilledema
C. Optic atrophy
D. Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Papilledema causes bilateral optic disc swelling and
peripheral field loss. Glaucoma causes cupping, not disc
elevation. Optic atrophy blanches the disc. Retinal detachment
shows “curtain” and photopsias.
7. A diabetic patient complains of floaters and flashes of light.
Examination reveals a gray, elevated retinal flap. The diagnosis
is:
A. Retinal detachment
B. Macular hole
C. Vitreous hemorrhage
D. Central serous retinopathy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Flashes and floaters with a gray retinal flap indicate
detachment. Vitreous hemorrhage shows red haze; macular
hole gives central vision loss; CSR shows serous detachment at
macula but without flap.
, 8. A 25-year-old contacts wearer presents with severe eye pain,
photophobia, and a dendritic ulcer on fluorescein exam. The
most appropriate treatment is:
A. Topical tobramycin
B. Oral voriconazole
C. Topical acyclovir
D. Intravitreal steroids
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Herpetic keratitis (dendritic ulcer) is treated with
topical antivirals like acyclovir. Tobramycin covers bacterial;
voriconazole covers fungal; steroids worsen herpes.
9. Which finding is most consistent with a diagnosis of uveitis?
A. Mutton-fat keratic precipitates
B. Cherry-red spot
C. Drusen
D. Kayser-Fleischer ring
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mutton-fat precipitates are granulomatous uveitis.
Cherry-red spot is artery occlusion. Drusen = AMD.
Kayser-Fleischer ring = Wilson’s disease.
10. A 40-year-old presents with episodic sharp eye pain and
nausea when outdoors in bright sunlight. Intraocular pressure is
Bank
Based on A Comprehensive Review for the
Certification and Recertification
Examinations for PAs, 7th Edition
By Claire Babcock O’Connell & Thea
Cogan-Drew
“Your Ultimate PA Exam MCQ Workbook: All Chapters, All
Topics, Fully Explained”
“Ace the PANCE & PANRE: 7th Edition-Based Complete
Question Review Guide”
table of contents
1 Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology 2 Pulmonology
Disorders of the Eyes Infectious Disorders
Disorders of the Ears Neoplastic Diseases
Disorders of the Nose, Sinus, and Throat Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases
Pleural Diseases
Pulmonary Circulation
Restrictive Pulmonary Diseases
, 1 Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology 2 Pulmonology
Other Pulmonary Diseases
3 Cardiovascular Medicine 4 Hematology
Major Principles of Cardiac Care Red Cell Disorders
Hypertension White Cell Disorders
Heart Failure (HF) Lymphomas and Myeloma
Shock Platelet and Bleeding Disorders
Hypotension Thrombotic Disorders and Hypercoagulable Conditions
Atherosclerosis
Ischemic Heart Disease (Angina)
Acute Coronary Syndromes
Valvular Disorders
Cardiomyopathies
Congenital Heart Anomalies
Rate and Rhythm Disorders
Conduction Disturbances
Pericardial Disorders
Infective Endocarditis
Rheumatic Heart Disease
Peripheral Vascular Disorders
Giant Cell Arteritis
Aortic Aneurysms
5 Gastroenterology 6 Nephrology and Urology
Diseases of the Esophagus Renal Failure
Diseases of the Stomach Glomerular Disorders
Diseases of the Small Intestine and Colon Polycystic Kidney Disease
Diseases of the Rectum and Anus Nephrolithiasis
Appendicitis Disorders of Salt and Water
Diseases of the Pancreas Electrolyte Disorders
Diseases of the Biliary Tract Acid–Base Disorders
Diseases of the Liver Urinary Tract Infection
Hernias Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
Congenital Abnormalities Incontinence
Nutritional Deficiencies Neoplasms of the Urinary Tract
Metabolic Disorders Male Reproductive Disorders
, 7 Gynecology 8 Obstetrics
Menstrual Disorders Routine Prenatal Care and Prenatal Diagnostic Testing
Uterine Disorders High-Risk Pregnancy
Ovarian Disorders Complications of Pregnancy
Cervical Dysplasia and Neoplasia Labor and Delivery
Vaginal and Vulvar Neoplasms Puerperium
Breast Disorders
Contraceptive Methods
Infertility
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
9 Rheumatology and Orthopedics (Musculoskeletal System) 10 Endocrinology
Arthritis/Rheumatologic Conditions Parathyroid Disorders
Bone and Joint Disorders Thyroid Disorders
Fractures, Dislocations, Sprains, and Strains Pituitary Gland
Disorders of the Head and Neck Diabetes Mellitus
Disorders of the Shoulder and Upper Extremity Hyperlipidemia
Disorders of the Back Adrenal Gland Disorders
Disorders of the Hip and Lower Extremity
11 Neurology 12 Psychiatry
Diagnosis of Neurologic Disorders Diagnosis of Psychiatric Disorders
Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic
Cerebrovascular Disease
Disorders
Seizure Disorders Somatic Symptom Disorders
Multiple Sclerosis Mood Disorders
Dementia Personality Disorders
Headache Anxiety Disorders
Movement Disorders Trauma- and Stressor-Related Disorders
Diseases of Peripheral Nerves Eating Disorders
Central Nervous System Infection Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders
Central Nervous System Trauma Childhood Disorders
Primary Central Nervous System
Abuse and Neglect
Neoplasms
Sleep Disorders Sexual Violence and Rape
Uncomplicated Bereavement
13 Dermatology 14 Infectious Disease
Diagnosis Fever
, 13 Dermatology 14 Infectious Disease
Maculopapular and Plaque Disorders Sepsis
Vesiculobullous Disorders Bacterial Infections
Papulopustular Inflammatory Disorders Viral Infections
Localized Skin Infections Fungal Infections
Dermatophytosis Parasitic Infections
Parasitic Infestations Sexually Transmitted Diseases
Warts (Verrucae) Tick-Borne Illnesses
Tumors
Ulcers, Burns, and Wounds
Hair and Nails
Pigmentation Disorders
Angioedema and Urticaria
15 Surgery 16 Geriatrics
Patient History Background
Preoperative Evaluation Patient Care
Selected Common Diseases and Disorders with Unique
Trauma
Features in the Elderly
Burns Legal, Ethical, and Financial Issues
Orthopedic Injuries
Postoperative Complications
Laparoscopic and Bariatric
Surgery
17 Pediatrics
Examination of the Newborn
Problems Common to the Term Newborn
Developmental Milestones and Disorders
Inborn Errors of Metabolism, Chromosomal Abnormalities, and Common Dysmorphic
Syndromes
Failure to Thrive, Growth Delay, and Selected Nutritional Disorders of Childhood
Immunization of Infants and Children
Common Pediatric Poisonings
Common Pediatric Disorders
Caring for the Adolescent
,Chapter 1: Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology (Disorders of
the Eyes; Disorders of the Ears; Disorders of the Nose, Sinus,
and Throat)
Disorders of the Eyes (1–13)
1. A 7-year-old child presents with red, watery eyes and a
mucoid discharge after swimming in a community pool. Which
finding best distinguishes viral conjunctivitis from bacterial
conjunctivitis?
A. Presence of preauricular lymphadenopathy
B. Thick purulent discharge
C. Unilateral eye involvement
D. Itching more than burning
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Preauricular lymphadenopathy is common in viral
conjunctivitis. Bacterial tends to have purulent discharge; viral
is often bilateral with watery discharge and burning rather than
itching.
2. A 55-year-old diabetic patient complains of sudden, painless
vision loss described as a “curtain coming down.” Fundoscopy
reveals multiple dot-blot hemorrhages. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Central retinal artery occlusion
B. Central retinal vein occlusion
,C. Diabetic macular edema
D. Vitreous hemorrhage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden, painless vision loss with dot-blot
hemorrhages suggests central retinal vein occlusion. Artery
occlusion has a cherry-red spot; macular edema causes gradual
blurring; vitreous hemorrhage shows floaters and hazy red
reflex.
3. A 30-year-old woman reports intermittent episodes of
blurred vision and eye pain worsened by movement. On exam,
there is an afferent pupillary defect. Which is the most likely
cause?
A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
B. Optic neuritis
C. Uveitis
D. Corneal abrasion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Optic neuritis presents with painful eye movements,
afferent pupillary defect, and vision blurring. Angle-closure has
high IOP and fixed mid-dilated pupil; uveitis causes
photophobia; abrasion causes superficial pain and tearing
without pupillary defect.
,4. A patient has acute onset of halos around lights, severe eye
pain, headache, and a mid-dilated nonreactive pupil.
Intraocular pressure is elevated. The most appropriate initial
step is:
A. Emergent laser peripheral iridotomy
B. Topical beta-blocker and acetazolamide
C. Intravenous mannitol only
D. Prescribe topical corticosteroids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In acute angle-closure glaucoma, immediate
pressure lowering with topical β-blocker and systemic
acetazolamide is first, before definitive iridotomy. Mannitol
alone may be used but after first-line. Steroids are for uveitis.
5. In a patient with age-related macular degeneration, which
finding corresponds to the early dry form?
A. Neovascular membrane formation
B. Drusen deposits in Bruch’s membrane
C. Retinal hemorrhages
D. Vitreomacular traction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dry AMD is characterized by drusen. Neovascular
membrane and hemorrhages appear in wet AMD.
Vitreomacular traction is separate pathology.
,6. A 65-year-old smoker complains of peripheral vision loss.
Fundoscopy shows an elevated optic disc with blurred margins.
What is the most likely cause?
A. Glaucoma
B. Papilledema
C. Optic atrophy
D. Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Papilledema causes bilateral optic disc swelling and
peripheral field loss. Glaucoma causes cupping, not disc
elevation. Optic atrophy blanches the disc. Retinal detachment
shows “curtain” and photopsias.
7. A diabetic patient complains of floaters and flashes of light.
Examination reveals a gray, elevated retinal flap. The diagnosis
is:
A. Retinal detachment
B. Macular hole
C. Vitreous hemorrhage
D. Central serous retinopathy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Flashes and floaters with a gray retinal flap indicate
detachment. Vitreous hemorrhage shows red haze; macular
hole gives central vision loss; CSR shows serous detachment at
macula but without flap.
, 8. A 25-year-old contacts wearer presents with severe eye pain,
photophobia, and a dendritic ulcer on fluorescein exam. The
most appropriate treatment is:
A. Topical tobramycin
B. Oral voriconazole
C. Topical acyclovir
D. Intravitreal steroids
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Herpetic keratitis (dendritic ulcer) is treated with
topical antivirals like acyclovir. Tobramycin covers bacterial;
voriconazole covers fungal; steroids worsen herpes.
9. Which finding is most consistent with a diagnosis of uveitis?
A. Mutton-fat keratic precipitates
B. Cherry-red spot
C. Drusen
D. Kayser-Fleischer ring
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mutton-fat precipitates are granulomatous uveitis.
Cherry-red spot is artery occlusion. Drusen = AMD.
Kayser-Fleischer ring = Wilson’s disease.
10. A 40-year-old presents with episodic sharp eye pain and
nausea when outdoors in bright sunlight. Intraocular pressure is
