1
Pharmacology HESI Exam
Test Bank 2025 – 180 Actual
Exam Questions with Verified
Answers and Rationales | A+
Graded | Latest Edition
1. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse effect should the
nurse monitor for?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Tachycardia
D) Constipation
A) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can reduce aldosterone secretion, leading to
potassium retention and hyperkalemia. Hypoglycemia (B), tachycardia (C), and
constipation (D) are not commonly associated with lisinopril.
2. A client is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor?
A) Platelet count
B) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C) Serum creatinine
D) Blood glucose
B) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
Rationale: Warfarin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored via INR to ensure therapeutic
levels and prevent bleeding or clotting. Platelet count (A), creatinine (C), and glucose (D)
are not primary monitoring parameters for warfarin.
3. A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which instruction should the
nurse include?
A) Take on an empty stomach
B) Monitor for hyperkalemia
C) Take with meals to reduce GI upset
D) Avoid all carbohydrates
, 2
C) Take with meals to reduce GI upset
Rationale: Metformin is taken with meals to minimize gastrointestinal side effects like
nausea, per HESI pharmacology standards. Empty stomach (A) increases GI upset,
hyperkalemia (B) is not a primary concern, and avoiding carbohydrates (D) is
unnecessary.
4. A client with a peptic ulcer is prescribed sucralfate. When should the nurse instruct
the client to take this medication?
A) With meals
B) One hour before meals
C) At bedtime only
D) After meals
B) One hour before meals
Rationale: Sucralfate forms a protective barrier over ulcers and is most effective when
taken on an empty stomach, one hour before meals, per HESI standards. With meals (A),
at bedtime (C), or after meals (D) reduces efficacy.
5. A client with asthma is prescribed montelukast. Which statement indicates effective
teaching?
A) “I will take it during an asthma attack.”
B) “I will take it every evening.”
C) “It will stop an attack immediately.”
D) “I won’t need my inhaler anymore.”
B) I will take it every evening.
Rationale: Montelukast, a leukotriene modifier, is taken daily, typically in the evening,
for asthma control, not acute attacks, per HESI standards. Options A, C, and D reflect
misunderstandings of its use.
6. A client receives naloxone in the emergency department. Which finding indicates
the medication is effective?
A) Chest pain is relieved
B) Respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute
C) Seizure activity stops
D) Pupils are constricted
B) Respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute
Rationale: Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, so a normal
respiratory rate indicates effectiveness, per HESI standards. Options A, C, and D are not
related to naloxone’s action.
7. A nurse administers furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which electrolyte
imbalance should be monitored?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hyponatremia
B) Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases potassium excretion, leading to
hypokalemia, per HESI standards. Hyperkalemia (A), hypernatremia (C), and
hyponatremia (D) are less common.
, 3
8. A client is prescribed nitroglycerin for angina. Which assessment indicates the
desired effect?
A) Blood pressure decreases from 180/90 to 120/80
B) Chest pain is relieved
C) Pulse decreases from 100 to 80
D) SaO2 increases from 92% to 96%
B) Chest pain is relieved
Rationale: Nitroglycerin dilates coronary arteries to relieve angina; chest pain relief is
the primary indicator of effectiveness, per HESI standards. Blood pressure (A), pulse (C),
and SaO2 (D) are secondary.
9. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed epoetin alfa. Which finding
indicates effectiveness?
A) Increased energy levels
B) Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
C) Improved appetite
D) Reduced joint pain
B) Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
Rationale: Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production; a hemoglobin level of 12
g/dL indicates effectiveness, per HESI standards. Energy (A), appetite (C), and pain (D)
are subjective or unrelated.
10. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). How should the
nurse schedule it with Lugol’s solution?
A) Administer PTU one hour before Lugol’s solution
B) Administer both with a meal
C) Administer Lugol’s solution one hour before PTU
D) Administer at the same time
C) Administer Lugol’s solution one hour before PTU
Rationale: Lugol’s solution (iodine) should be given one hour before PTU to avoid
interference with PTU’s absorption, per HESI standards. Options A, B, and D may
reduce efficacy.
11. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed nitrofurantoin. What should the
nurse instruct?
A) Strain urine for crystals
B) Increase fluid intake
C) Stop if urine output increases
D) Maintain exact timing for doses
B) Increase fluid intake
Rationale: Increased fluid intake helps flush bacteria from the urinary tract, enhancing
nitrofurantoin’s effectiveness, per HESI standards. Options A, C, and D are not relevant.
12. A client reports yellowing of teeth after prolonged antibiotic use. Which medication
is most likely responsible?
A) Tetracycline
B) Amoxicillin
C) Cephalexin
D) Azithromycin
A) Tetracycline
, 4
Rationale: Tetracycline is known to cause tooth discoloration with prolonged use,
especially in children, per HESI standards. Options B, C, and D do not typically cause
this.
13. A client with asthma is prescribed beclomethasone inhaler. What should the nurse
explain as its purpose?
A) Immediate relief of acute symptoms
B) Long-term control of inflammation
C) Treatment of infections
D) Bronchodilation during attacks
B) Long-term control of inflammation
Rationale: Beclomethasone, an inhaled corticosteroid, reduces airway inflammation for
long-term asthma control, per HESI standards. Options A, C, and D are incorrect.
14. A client with hyperparathyroidism has a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dL. Which
medication should the nurse prepare?
A) Calcium chloride
B) Calcitonin
C) Vitamin D
D) Calcium gluconate
B) Calcitonin
Rationale: Calcitonin lowers serum calcium by inhibiting bone resorption, per HESI
standards. Calcium chloride (A), vitamin D (C), and calcium gluconate (D) increase
calcium levels.
15. A client with psoriasis is prescribed salicylic acid. Which finding should the nurse
monitor?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Skin irritation
C) Hypertension
D) Bradycardia
B) Skin irritation
Rationale: Salicylic acid can cause local skin irritation, per HESI standards.
Hypoglycemia (A), hypertension (C), and bradycardia (D) are not associated.
16. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. Which electrolyte should the
nurse monitor?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hyponatremia
D) Hypernatremia
B) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause hyperkalemia, per
HESI standards. Hypokalemia (A), hyponatremia (C), and hypernatremia (D) are less
likely.
17. A client with a postoperative infection is prescribed cephalexin. Which instruction
should the nurse provide?
A) Take on an empty stomach
B) Avoid dairy products
C) Complete the full course
Pharmacology HESI Exam
Test Bank 2025 – 180 Actual
Exam Questions with Verified
Answers and Rationales | A+
Graded | Latest Edition
1. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse effect should the
nurse monitor for?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Tachycardia
D) Constipation
A) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can reduce aldosterone secretion, leading to
potassium retention and hyperkalemia. Hypoglycemia (B), tachycardia (C), and
constipation (D) are not commonly associated with lisinopril.
2. A client is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor?
A) Platelet count
B) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C) Serum creatinine
D) Blood glucose
B) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
Rationale: Warfarin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored via INR to ensure therapeutic
levels and prevent bleeding or clotting. Platelet count (A), creatinine (C), and glucose (D)
are not primary monitoring parameters for warfarin.
3. A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which instruction should the
nurse include?
A) Take on an empty stomach
B) Monitor for hyperkalemia
C) Take with meals to reduce GI upset
D) Avoid all carbohydrates
, 2
C) Take with meals to reduce GI upset
Rationale: Metformin is taken with meals to minimize gastrointestinal side effects like
nausea, per HESI pharmacology standards. Empty stomach (A) increases GI upset,
hyperkalemia (B) is not a primary concern, and avoiding carbohydrates (D) is
unnecessary.
4. A client with a peptic ulcer is prescribed sucralfate. When should the nurse instruct
the client to take this medication?
A) With meals
B) One hour before meals
C) At bedtime only
D) After meals
B) One hour before meals
Rationale: Sucralfate forms a protective barrier over ulcers and is most effective when
taken on an empty stomach, one hour before meals, per HESI standards. With meals (A),
at bedtime (C), or after meals (D) reduces efficacy.
5. A client with asthma is prescribed montelukast. Which statement indicates effective
teaching?
A) “I will take it during an asthma attack.”
B) “I will take it every evening.”
C) “It will stop an attack immediately.”
D) “I won’t need my inhaler anymore.”
B) I will take it every evening.
Rationale: Montelukast, a leukotriene modifier, is taken daily, typically in the evening,
for asthma control, not acute attacks, per HESI standards. Options A, C, and D reflect
misunderstandings of its use.
6. A client receives naloxone in the emergency department. Which finding indicates
the medication is effective?
A) Chest pain is relieved
B) Respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute
C) Seizure activity stops
D) Pupils are constricted
B) Respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute
Rationale: Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, so a normal
respiratory rate indicates effectiveness, per HESI standards. Options A, C, and D are not
related to naloxone’s action.
7. A nurse administers furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which electrolyte
imbalance should be monitored?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hyponatremia
B) Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases potassium excretion, leading to
hypokalemia, per HESI standards. Hyperkalemia (A), hypernatremia (C), and
hyponatremia (D) are less common.
, 3
8. A client is prescribed nitroglycerin for angina. Which assessment indicates the
desired effect?
A) Blood pressure decreases from 180/90 to 120/80
B) Chest pain is relieved
C) Pulse decreases from 100 to 80
D) SaO2 increases from 92% to 96%
B) Chest pain is relieved
Rationale: Nitroglycerin dilates coronary arteries to relieve angina; chest pain relief is
the primary indicator of effectiveness, per HESI standards. Blood pressure (A), pulse (C),
and SaO2 (D) are secondary.
9. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed epoetin alfa. Which finding
indicates effectiveness?
A) Increased energy levels
B) Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
C) Improved appetite
D) Reduced joint pain
B) Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
Rationale: Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production; a hemoglobin level of 12
g/dL indicates effectiveness, per HESI standards. Energy (A), appetite (C), and pain (D)
are subjective or unrelated.
10. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). How should the
nurse schedule it with Lugol’s solution?
A) Administer PTU one hour before Lugol’s solution
B) Administer both with a meal
C) Administer Lugol’s solution one hour before PTU
D) Administer at the same time
C) Administer Lugol’s solution one hour before PTU
Rationale: Lugol’s solution (iodine) should be given one hour before PTU to avoid
interference with PTU’s absorption, per HESI standards. Options A, B, and D may
reduce efficacy.
11. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed nitrofurantoin. What should the
nurse instruct?
A) Strain urine for crystals
B) Increase fluid intake
C) Stop if urine output increases
D) Maintain exact timing for doses
B) Increase fluid intake
Rationale: Increased fluid intake helps flush bacteria from the urinary tract, enhancing
nitrofurantoin’s effectiveness, per HESI standards. Options A, C, and D are not relevant.
12. A client reports yellowing of teeth after prolonged antibiotic use. Which medication
is most likely responsible?
A) Tetracycline
B) Amoxicillin
C) Cephalexin
D) Azithromycin
A) Tetracycline
, 4
Rationale: Tetracycline is known to cause tooth discoloration with prolonged use,
especially in children, per HESI standards. Options B, C, and D do not typically cause
this.
13. A client with asthma is prescribed beclomethasone inhaler. What should the nurse
explain as its purpose?
A) Immediate relief of acute symptoms
B) Long-term control of inflammation
C) Treatment of infections
D) Bronchodilation during attacks
B) Long-term control of inflammation
Rationale: Beclomethasone, an inhaled corticosteroid, reduces airway inflammation for
long-term asthma control, per HESI standards. Options A, C, and D are incorrect.
14. A client with hyperparathyroidism has a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dL. Which
medication should the nurse prepare?
A) Calcium chloride
B) Calcitonin
C) Vitamin D
D) Calcium gluconate
B) Calcitonin
Rationale: Calcitonin lowers serum calcium by inhibiting bone resorption, per HESI
standards. Calcium chloride (A), vitamin D (C), and calcium gluconate (D) increase
calcium levels.
15. A client with psoriasis is prescribed salicylic acid. Which finding should the nurse
monitor?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Skin irritation
C) Hypertension
D) Bradycardia
B) Skin irritation
Rationale: Salicylic acid can cause local skin irritation, per HESI standards.
Hypoglycemia (A), hypertension (C), and bradycardia (D) are not associated.
16. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. Which electrolyte should the
nurse monitor?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hyponatremia
D) Hypernatremia
B) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause hyperkalemia, per
HESI standards. Hypokalemia (A), hyponatremia (C), and hypernatremia (D) are less
likely.
17. A client with a postoperative infection is prescribed cephalexin. Which instruction
should the nurse provide?
A) Take on an empty stomach
B) Avoid dairy products
C) Complete the full course
