ATI RN FUNDAMENTALS PROCTORED EXAM 2025 – 100 MOST TESTED &
TRICKY QUESTIONS WITH RATIONALE | NCLEX-LEVEL PRACTICE MCQS
1. A nurse administers a PRN sedative to a competent client without the client's
request, preventing them from leaving AMA. What legal violation has occurred?
A. Assault
B. False imprisonment
C. Negligence
D. Battery
Answer: B. False imprisonment
Explanation: Administering a sedative to detain a client without consent constitutes false
imprisonment, even if well-intentioned.
2. Which of the following actions by a nurse violates the ethical principle of fidelity?
A. Refusing to explain a procedure
B. Failing to administer a promised pain medication
C. Not allowing a client to refuse treatment
D. Discussing a patient’s condition with the family
Answer: B. Failing to administer a promised pain medication
Explanation: Fidelity involves keeping promises. Failure to follow through on a pain
medication commitment breaches this principle.
3. A nurse delegates ambulation of a post-op client to an AP. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse prioritize?
A. "Ensure the client wears slippers."
B. "Have the client use a quad cane."
C. "Check if the client had pain meds recently."
D. "Help the client to a sitting position first."
Answer: C. "Check if the client had pain meds recently."
, Explanation: Pain management impacts mobility safety; ambulation may be unsafe
without adequate relief.
4. What is the most appropriate nursing action when a nurse finds a colleague
unconscious and suspects drug use on duty?
A. Inform the charge nurse privately
B. Confront the nurse directly
C. Notify hospital security
D. Report to the nurse manager immediately
Answer: D. Report to the nurse manager immediately
Explanation: Professional duty requires immediate reporting to the nurse manager to
protect patient safety.
5. A nurse assesses a postop incision and notes redness, warmth, and purulent
drainage. Which phase of infection is this?
A. Incubation
B. Prodromal
C. Illness
D. Convalescence
Answer: C. Illness
Explanation: The illness phase is marked by specific symptoms and signs of infection.
6. A client with dysphagia is at risk of aspiration. What nursing instruction is
appropriate during feeding?
A. Tilt the head back
B. Tuck the chin during swallowing
C. Give water between bites
D. Use a straw
Answer: B. Tuck the chin during swallowing
Explanation: This maneuver helps direct food safely down the esophagus and prevents
aspiration.
,7. What is the best nursing action for a client who reports pain but shows no objective
signs?
A. Document no pain observed
B. Offer distraction techniques only
C. Believe the client and assess using a scale
D. Withhold meds until signs are visible
Answer: C. Believe the client and assess using a scale
Explanation: Pain is subjective. Nurses must respect and assess it using standardized tools.
7. Which member of the interprofessional team should the nurse consult for a client
struggling to self-feed due to rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Dietitian
B. Occupational therapist
C. Physical therapist
D. Social worker
Answer: B. Occupational therapist
Explanation: OTs assist with adaptive equipment and techniques for self-care activities.
8. A nurse is preparing to administer 0.3 mL of methylprednisolone from a 40 mg/mL
vial. What is the correct volume for a 10 mg dose?
A. 0.2 mL
B. 0.3 mL
C. 0.4 mL
D. 0.5 mL
Answer: B. 0.3 mL
Explanation: Dose = desired / available = 10 mg ÷ 40 mg/mL = 0.25 mL, rounded to
0.3.
9. A client reports “pulling and pain” from a surgical site and the nurse finds wound
evisceration. What is the immediate priority?
A. Apply a sterile dry dressing
B. Notify the provider
C. Cover with sterile saline gauze
D. Measure the wound
, Answer: C. Cover with sterile saline gauze
Explanation: To prevent drying and contamination, moist sterile dressing must be
applied first.
11. Which action violates safe medication administration principles?
A. Administering within a 30-minute window
B. Double-checking high-alert meds
C. Crushing an enteric-coated pill
D. Documenting after administration
Answer: C. Crushing an enteric-coated pill
Explanation: Crushing enteric-coated meds destroys their protective mechanism.
12. Which of the following statements by a newly licensed nurse about infection control
needs correction?
A. “I'll use a new suction catheter each time.”
B. “Routine endotracheal suctioning is necessary.”
C. “Surgical asepsis is used during suctioning.”
D. “I’ll limit suctioning to 2-3 passes.”
Answer: B. “Routine endotracheal suctioning is necessary.”
Explanation: Suctioning should only be performed when clinically indicated.
13. What is the nurse’s first action after noticing wound separation with exposed viscera?
A. Apply an abdominal binder
B. Cover with sterile, saline-moistened gauze
C. Administer pain medication
D. Measure the exposed area
Answer: B. Cover with sterile, saline-moistened gauze
Explanation: Protect exposed organs from infection and drying.
TRICKY QUESTIONS WITH RATIONALE | NCLEX-LEVEL PRACTICE MCQS
1. A nurse administers a PRN sedative to a competent client without the client's
request, preventing them from leaving AMA. What legal violation has occurred?
A. Assault
B. False imprisonment
C. Negligence
D. Battery
Answer: B. False imprisonment
Explanation: Administering a sedative to detain a client without consent constitutes false
imprisonment, even if well-intentioned.
2. Which of the following actions by a nurse violates the ethical principle of fidelity?
A. Refusing to explain a procedure
B. Failing to administer a promised pain medication
C. Not allowing a client to refuse treatment
D. Discussing a patient’s condition with the family
Answer: B. Failing to administer a promised pain medication
Explanation: Fidelity involves keeping promises. Failure to follow through on a pain
medication commitment breaches this principle.
3. A nurse delegates ambulation of a post-op client to an AP. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse prioritize?
A. "Ensure the client wears slippers."
B. "Have the client use a quad cane."
C. "Check if the client had pain meds recently."
D. "Help the client to a sitting position first."
Answer: C. "Check if the client had pain meds recently."
, Explanation: Pain management impacts mobility safety; ambulation may be unsafe
without adequate relief.
4. What is the most appropriate nursing action when a nurse finds a colleague
unconscious and suspects drug use on duty?
A. Inform the charge nurse privately
B. Confront the nurse directly
C. Notify hospital security
D. Report to the nurse manager immediately
Answer: D. Report to the nurse manager immediately
Explanation: Professional duty requires immediate reporting to the nurse manager to
protect patient safety.
5. A nurse assesses a postop incision and notes redness, warmth, and purulent
drainage. Which phase of infection is this?
A. Incubation
B. Prodromal
C. Illness
D. Convalescence
Answer: C. Illness
Explanation: The illness phase is marked by specific symptoms and signs of infection.
6. A client with dysphagia is at risk of aspiration. What nursing instruction is
appropriate during feeding?
A. Tilt the head back
B. Tuck the chin during swallowing
C. Give water between bites
D. Use a straw
Answer: B. Tuck the chin during swallowing
Explanation: This maneuver helps direct food safely down the esophagus and prevents
aspiration.
,7. What is the best nursing action for a client who reports pain but shows no objective
signs?
A. Document no pain observed
B. Offer distraction techniques only
C. Believe the client and assess using a scale
D. Withhold meds until signs are visible
Answer: C. Believe the client and assess using a scale
Explanation: Pain is subjective. Nurses must respect and assess it using standardized tools.
7. Which member of the interprofessional team should the nurse consult for a client
struggling to self-feed due to rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Dietitian
B. Occupational therapist
C. Physical therapist
D. Social worker
Answer: B. Occupational therapist
Explanation: OTs assist with adaptive equipment and techniques for self-care activities.
8. A nurse is preparing to administer 0.3 mL of methylprednisolone from a 40 mg/mL
vial. What is the correct volume for a 10 mg dose?
A. 0.2 mL
B. 0.3 mL
C. 0.4 mL
D. 0.5 mL
Answer: B. 0.3 mL
Explanation: Dose = desired / available = 10 mg ÷ 40 mg/mL = 0.25 mL, rounded to
0.3.
9. A client reports “pulling and pain” from a surgical site and the nurse finds wound
evisceration. What is the immediate priority?
A. Apply a sterile dry dressing
B. Notify the provider
C. Cover with sterile saline gauze
D. Measure the wound
, Answer: C. Cover with sterile saline gauze
Explanation: To prevent drying and contamination, moist sterile dressing must be
applied first.
11. Which action violates safe medication administration principles?
A. Administering within a 30-minute window
B. Double-checking high-alert meds
C. Crushing an enteric-coated pill
D. Documenting after administration
Answer: C. Crushing an enteric-coated pill
Explanation: Crushing enteric-coated meds destroys their protective mechanism.
12. Which of the following statements by a newly licensed nurse about infection control
needs correction?
A. “I'll use a new suction catheter each time.”
B. “Routine endotracheal suctioning is necessary.”
C. “Surgical asepsis is used during suctioning.”
D. “I’ll limit suctioning to 2-3 passes.”
Answer: B. “Routine endotracheal suctioning is necessary.”
Explanation: Suctioning should only be performed when clinically indicated.
13. What is the nurse’s first action after noticing wound separation with exposed viscera?
A. Apply an abdominal binder
B. Cover with sterile, saline-moistened gauze
C. Administer pain medication
D. Measure the exposed area
Answer: B. Cover with sterile, saline-moistened gauze
Explanation: Protect exposed organs from infection and drying.
