, MASTERING PHARMACOTHERAPEUTICS:
2025 EXAM PREP FOR ARCANGELO &
PETERSON
📘 Verified | Detailed Rationales | 1,120 Questions | Designed for Guaranteed Clinical
Competency
Table of Contents
1. Issues for the Practitioner in Drug Therapy
2. Pharmacokinetic Basis of Therapeutics and Pharmacodynamic Principles
3. Impact of Drug Interactions and Adverse Events on Therapeutics
4. Principles of Pharmacotherapy in Pediatrics, Pregnancy and Lactation
5. Pharmacotherapy Principles in Older Adults
6. Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
7. Pharmacogenomics
8. The Economics of Pharmacotherapeutics
9. Principles of Pharmacology in Pain Management
10. Pain Management in Opioid Use Disorder (OUD) Patients
11. Cannabis and Pain Management
12. Dermatitis
13. Bacterial, Fungal, and Viral Infections of the Skin
14. Psoriasis
15. Acne Vulgaris and Rosacea
16. Ophthalmic Disorders
17. Otitis Media and Otitis Externa
18. Hypertension
,19. Hyperlipidemia
20. Chronic Stable Angina and Myocardial Infarction
21. Heart Failure
22. Arrhythmias
23. Respiratory Infections
24. Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
25. Gastric, Functional and Inflammatory Bowel Disorders
26. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease and Peptic Ulcer Disease
27. Liver Diseases
28. Urinary Tract Infection
29. Prostatic Disorders and Erectile Dysfunction
30. Overactive Bladder
31. Sexually Transmitted Infections
32. Osteoarthritis and Gout
33. Osteoporosis
34. Rheumatoid Arthritis
35. Headaches
36. Seizure Disorders
37. Alzheimer’s Disease
38. Parkinson Disease
39. Major Depressive Disorder and Bipolar Disorders
40. Anxiety Disorders
41. Sleep Disorders
42. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
43. Substance Use Disorders
44. Diabetes Mellitus
45. Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders
,46. Allergies and Allergic Reactions
47. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
48. Organ Transplantation
49. Pharmacotherapy for Select Thromboembolic Disorders
50. Anemias
51. Immunizations
52. Smoking Cessation
53. Weight Loss
54. Contraception
55. Menopause
56. Vaginitis
,A. Prescriptive Authority and State-Specific Legal Scope (10
Questions)
1. An APP in State X holds full prescriptive authority for
Schedule II–V controlled substances. Which document
should the provider consult to confirm this scope?
A. State Board of Pharmacy regulations
B. Federal DEA Code of Federal Regulations
C. State Nurse Practice Act
D. Hospital bylaws
Answer: C
Rationale: The State Nurse Practice Act defines nursing
roles and prescriptive scope. State Board of Pharmacy
rules (A) govern pharmacists; the federal DEA (B) covers
registration but not state scope; hospital bylaws (D)
cannot override state law.
2. An APP relocates from State Y (full authority) to State Z
(collaborative practice required). Which action is most
appropriate before prescribing?
A. Begin prescribing and update collaborative agreement
later
B. Mail a copy of active license to the medical director
C. Establish a written collaborative agreement with a
supervising physician
D. Apply for a waiver from State Z’s Board
Answer: C
, Rationale: Collaborative agreements are mandatory in
State Z. Delay (A) risks illegal prescribing; mailing license
(B) alone is insufficient; waivers (D) are not typically
available.
3. Under a physician’s standing order, an APP may
administer which of the following?
A. Any IV medication without limitation
B. Only the medications listed in the standing order
C. Schedule II opioids
D. Vaccines only during public health emergencies
Answer: B
Rationale: Standing orders specify exact medications.
Unlisted IV meds (A) and Schedule II opioids (C) require
independent or state-authorized prescribing; vaccines in
emergencies (D) are a subset, not exclusive.
4. Which federal law primarily regulates controlled
substance prescribing?
A. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
B. Controlled Substances Act
C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
D. Durham-Humphrey Amendment
Answer: B
Rationale: The Controlled Substances Act classifies and
controls prescribing. The FD&C Act (A) covers drug
approval; HIPAA (C) covers patient privacy; Durham-
Humphrey (D) created prescription vs. OTC categories.
,5. An APP prescribes a Schedule II opioid. What is required
by federal regulation?
A. Faxed prescription only
B. Written or electronic prescription signed by provider
C. Verbal order documented in chart
D. Standing order from physician
Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule II must be written (or DEA-compliant
e-prescription) and signed by the prescriber. Fax (A) only in
limited cases (e.g., home care); verbal orders (C) are
prohibited; standing order (D) can’t dispense Schedule II.
6. Which statement about state prescription monitoring
programs (PMPs) is true?
A. They are only voluntary for APPs.
B. They track Schedule III–V but not Schedule II.
C. Providers must check before initiating controlled
substances.
D. They replace the need for chronic pain assessments.
Answer: C
Rationale: Most states mandate PMP checks before
controlled-substance prescribing. They’re mandatory (A
false), track Schedules II–V (B false), and supplement—not
replace—pain assessments (D false).
7. An APP wants to prescribe buprenorphine for opioid use
disorder. What federal certification is required?
A. DEA X-waiver
, B. State Board of Nursing endorsement
C. Advanced Practice Psychiatric certification
D. Hospital credentialing only
Answer: A
Rationale: The DEA X-waiver authorizes buprenorphine for
addiction. State endorsement (B) and psychiatric cert (C)
don’t confer waiver; hospital credentials (D) are internal.
8. An APP practicing in multiple states under telehealth
should verify which of the following before prescribing?
A. The patient’s insurance network
B. State licensure or compact privileges
C. The patient’s preference of pharmacy
D. The prescribing physician’s home state laws
Answer: B
Rationale: Telehealth prescribing requires provider
licensure in the patient’s state or a compact privilege.
Insurance (A), pharmacy choice (C), or another physician’s
state laws (D) are secondary.
9. When an APP delegates prescription writing to an LPN,
which law is violated?
A. Federal Occupational Safety and Health Act
B. State scope-of-practice regulations
C. Drug Supply Chain Security Act
D. Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act
Answer: B
Rationale: Delegation beyond scope breaches state
, practice acts. OSHA (A) governs workplace safety; DSCSA
(C) tracks drug distribution; EMTALA (D) covers ER access.
10. Which element must be included on every
prescription pad per state law?
A. Provider’s DEA number
B. Hospital logo
C. Pharmacy phone number
D. Patient’s diagnosis
Answer: A
Rationale: Controlled-substance prescriptions require the
prescriber’s DEA number. Logos (B), pharmacy contacts
(C), and diagnosis (D) are not universally mandated.
B. Ethical Prescribing and Provider Accountability (10
Questions)
11. An APP receives a gift from a drug rep. Ethical
prescribing requires the APP to:
A. Accept and thank the rep
B. Decline if the gift influences prescribing
C. Donate the gift to a colleague
D. Sell the gift and document proceeds
Answer: B
Rationale: Gifts that bias prescribing violate ethics.
Thanking (A) or re-gifting (C) doesn’t mitigate influence;
selling (D) is inappropriate.
, 12. A patient demands antibiotics for viral URI. Ethically,
the APP should:
A. Prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotic
B. Explain lack of benefit and offer symptomatic care
C. Prescribe narrow-spectrum to appease them
D. Discharge patient from practice
Answer: B
Rationale: Education and symptomatic care respect
evidence and patient autonomy. Broad (A) and narrow (C)
misuse antibiotics; dismissal (D) abandons patient.
13. An APP feels pressured by peers to prescribe opioids
liberally. Which ethical principle guides refusal?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Nonmaleficence
D. Justice
Answer: C
Rationale: “Do no harm” supports refusing unsafe opioid
overprescription. Autonomy (A) is patient choice;
beneficence (B) is promoting good but overlaps; justice (D)
is fairness.
14. Which action demonstrates provider accountability?
A. Refusing to see complex patients
B. Reporting prescribing errors to the state board
C. Delegating all prescribing to a pharmacist
D. Ignoring minor adverse drug events
2025 EXAM PREP FOR ARCANGELO &
PETERSON
📘 Verified | Detailed Rationales | 1,120 Questions | Designed for Guaranteed Clinical
Competency
Table of Contents
1. Issues for the Practitioner in Drug Therapy
2. Pharmacokinetic Basis of Therapeutics and Pharmacodynamic Principles
3. Impact of Drug Interactions and Adverse Events on Therapeutics
4. Principles of Pharmacotherapy in Pediatrics, Pregnancy and Lactation
5. Pharmacotherapy Principles in Older Adults
6. Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
7. Pharmacogenomics
8. The Economics of Pharmacotherapeutics
9. Principles of Pharmacology in Pain Management
10. Pain Management in Opioid Use Disorder (OUD) Patients
11. Cannabis and Pain Management
12. Dermatitis
13. Bacterial, Fungal, and Viral Infections of the Skin
14. Psoriasis
15. Acne Vulgaris and Rosacea
16. Ophthalmic Disorders
17. Otitis Media and Otitis Externa
18. Hypertension
,19. Hyperlipidemia
20. Chronic Stable Angina and Myocardial Infarction
21. Heart Failure
22. Arrhythmias
23. Respiratory Infections
24. Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
25. Gastric, Functional and Inflammatory Bowel Disorders
26. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease and Peptic Ulcer Disease
27. Liver Diseases
28. Urinary Tract Infection
29. Prostatic Disorders and Erectile Dysfunction
30. Overactive Bladder
31. Sexually Transmitted Infections
32. Osteoarthritis and Gout
33. Osteoporosis
34. Rheumatoid Arthritis
35. Headaches
36. Seizure Disorders
37. Alzheimer’s Disease
38. Parkinson Disease
39. Major Depressive Disorder and Bipolar Disorders
40. Anxiety Disorders
41. Sleep Disorders
42. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
43. Substance Use Disorders
44. Diabetes Mellitus
45. Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders
,46. Allergies and Allergic Reactions
47. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
48. Organ Transplantation
49. Pharmacotherapy for Select Thromboembolic Disorders
50. Anemias
51. Immunizations
52. Smoking Cessation
53. Weight Loss
54. Contraception
55. Menopause
56. Vaginitis
,A. Prescriptive Authority and State-Specific Legal Scope (10
Questions)
1. An APP in State X holds full prescriptive authority for
Schedule II–V controlled substances. Which document
should the provider consult to confirm this scope?
A. State Board of Pharmacy regulations
B. Federal DEA Code of Federal Regulations
C. State Nurse Practice Act
D. Hospital bylaws
Answer: C
Rationale: The State Nurse Practice Act defines nursing
roles and prescriptive scope. State Board of Pharmacy
rules (A) govern pharmacists; the federal DEA (B) covers
registration but not state scope; hospital bylaws (D)
cannot override state law.
2. An APP relocates from State Y (full authority) to State Z
(collaborative practice required). Which action is most
appropriate before prescribing?
A. Begin prescribing and update collaborative agreement
later
B. Mail a copy of active license to the medical director
C. Establish a written collaborative agreement with a
supervising physician
D. Apply for a waiver from State Z’s Board
Answer: C
, Rationale: Collaborative agreements are mandatory in
State Z. Delay (A) risks illegal prescribing; mailing license
(B) alone is insufficient; waivers (D) are not typically
available.
3. Under a physician’s standing order, an APP may
administer which of the following?
A. Any IV medication without limitation
B. Only the medications listed in the standing order
C. Schedule II opioids
D. Vaccines only during public health emergencies
Answer: B
Rationale: Standing orders specify exact medications.
Unlisted IV meds (A) and Schedule II opioids (C) require
independent or state-authorized prescribing; vaccines in
emergencies (D) are a subset, not exclusive.
4. Which federal law primarily regulates controlled
substance prescribing?
A. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
B. Controlled Substances Act
C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
D. Durham-Humphrey Amendment
Answer: B
Rationale: The Controlled Substances Act classifies and
controls prescribing. The FD&C Act (A) covers drug
approval; HIPAA (C) covers patient privacy; Durham-
Humphrey (D) created prescription vs. OTC categories.
,5. An APP prescribes a Schedule II opioid. What is required
by federal regulation?
A. Faxed prescription only
B. Written or electronic prescription signed by provider
C. Verbal order documented in chart
D. Standing order from physician
Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule II must be written (or DEA-compliant
e-prescription) and signed by the prescriber. Fax (A) only in
limited cases (e.g., home care); verbal orders (C) are
prohibited; standing order (D) can’t dispense Schedule II.
6. Which statement about state prescription monitoring
programs (PMPs) is true?
A. They are only voluntary for APPs.
B. They track Schedule III–V but not Schedule II.
C. Providers must check before initiating controlled
substances.
D. They replace the need for chronic pain assessments.
Answer: C
Rationale: Most states mandate PMP checks before
controlled-substance prescribing. They’re mandatory (A
false), track Schedules II–V (B false), and supplement—not
replace—pain assessments (D false).
7. An APP wants to prescribe buprenorphine for opioid use
disorder. What federal certification is required?
A. DEA X-waiver
, B. State Board of Nursing endorsement
C. Advanced Practice Psychiatric certification
D. Hospital credentialing only
Answer: A
Rationale: The DEA X-waiver authorizes buprenorphine for
addiction. State endorsement (B) and psychiatric cert (C)
don’t confer waiver; hospital credentials (D) are internal.
8. An APP practicing in multiple states under telehealth
should verify which of the following before prescribing?
A. The patient’s insurance network
B. State licensure or compact privileges
C. The patient’s preference of pharmacy
D. The prescribing physician’s home state laws
Answer: B
Rationale: Telehealth prescribing requires provider
licensure in the patient’s state or a compact privilege.
Insurance (A), pharmacy choice (C), or another physician’s
state laws (D) are secondary.
9. When an APP delegates prescription writing to an LPN,
which law is violated?
A. Federal Occupational Safety and Health Act
B. State scope-of-practice regulations
C. Drug Supply Chain Security Act
D. Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act
Answer: B
Rationale: Delegation beyond scope breaches state
, practice acts. OSHA (A) governs workplace safety; DSCSA
(C) tracks drug distribution; EMTALA (D) covers ER access.
10. Which element must be included on every
prescription pad per state law?
A. Provider’s DEA number
B. Hospital logo
C. Pharmacy phone number
D. Patient’s diagnosis
Answer: A
Rationale: Controlled-substance prescriptions require the
prescriber’s DEA number. Logos (B), pharmacy contacts
(C), and diagnosis (D) are not universally mandated.
B. Ethical Prescribing and Provider Accountability (10
Questions)
11. An APP receives a gift from a drug rep. Ethical
prescribing requires the APP to:
A. Accept and thank the rep
B. Decline if the gift influences prescribing
C. Donate the gift to a colleague
D. Sell the gift and document proceeds
Answer: B
Rationale: Gifts that bias prescribing violate ethics.
Thanking (A) or re-gifting (C) doesn’t mitigate influence;
selling (D) is inappropriate.
, 12. A patient demands antibiotics for viral URI. Ethically,
the APP should:
A. Prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotic
B. Explain lack of benefit and offer symptomatic care
C. Prescribe narrow-spectrum to appease them
D. Discharge patient from practice
Answer: B
Rationale: Education and symptomatic care respect
evidence and patient autonomy. Broad (A) and narrow (C)
misuse antibiotics; dismissal (D) abandons patient.
13. An APP feels pressured by peers to prescribe opioids
liberally. Which ethical principle guides refusal?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Nonmaleficence
D. Justice
Answer: C
Rationale: “Do no harm” supports refusing unsafe opioid
overprescription. Autonomy (A) is patient choice;
beneficence (B) is promoting good but overlaps; justice (D)
is fairness.
14. Which action demonstrates provider accountability?
A. Refusing to see complex patients
B. Reporting prescribing errors to the state board
C. Delegating all prescribing to a pharmacist
D. Ignoring minor adverse drug events
