1
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2024 /
2025 – Actual Exam with 170 Real
Questions and Verified Rationales | Pass
with Confidence
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is prescribed furosemide. Which
laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood glucose
D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases potassium excretion, leading to a risk
of hypokalemia, which can cause cardiac arrhythmias, especially in heart failure clients.
Monitoring serum potassium is critical to ensure safety.
2. A client with type 1 diabetes reports feeling shaky and sweaty. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Administer insulin
B. Check blood glucose level
C. Provide a high-protein snack
D. Encourage rest
Correct Answer: B. Check blood glucose level
Rationale: Shaking and sweating are symptoms of hypoglycemia. The nurse’s priority is
to confirm hypoglycemia by checking the blood glucose level before administering a fast-
acting carbohydrate if needed.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer warfarin to a client with atrial fibrillation.
Which laboratory value should be assessed?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Platelet count
D. Serum creatinine
Correct Answer: B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
Rationale: Warfarin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored using INR (therapeutic range:
2.0–3.0 for atrial fibrillation) to ensure effective anticoagulation and minimize bleeding
risk.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving albuterol
via nebulizer. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor?
, 2
A. Bradycardia
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypotension
D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: B. Tachycardia
Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 agonist, can stimulate beta-1 receptors, causing
tachycardia as a common adverse effect. Monitoring heart rate is essential during
administration.
5. A nurse is caring for a client post-myocardial infarction who is prescribed aspirin.
What is the purpose of this medication?
A. Reduce blood pressure
B. Prevent platelet aggregation
C. Decrease heart rate
D. Improve oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: B. Prevent platelet aggregation
Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of thrombus formation
in clients post-myocardial infarction.
6. A client with a new colostomy asks about dietary modifications. Which food should
the nurse recommend avoiding?
A. Broccoli
B. Bananas
C. Yogurt
D. Lean chicken
Correct Answer: A. Broccoli
Rationale: Broccoli, a gas-forming food, can increase flatulence and odor in clients with
a colostomy, which may cause discomfort or pouch issues.
7. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected appendicitis. Which finding should the
nurse report immediately?
A. Rebound tenderness
B. Mild nausea
C. Low-grade fever
D. Decreased appetite
Correct Answer: A. Rebound tenderness
Rationale: Rebound tenderness is a hallmark sign of appendicitis, indicating peritoneal
irritation and possible rupture, requiring immediate surgical evaluation.
8. A client is receiving IV heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which antidote should
the nurse have available?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Naloxone
D. Flumazenil
Correct Answer: B. Protamine sulfate
Rationale: Protamine sulfate reverses heparin’s anticoagulant effects, essential for
managing bleeding complications.
9. A nurse is teaching a client with hypertension about lisinopril. Which adverse effect
should the client report immediately?
, 3
A. Dry cough
B. Angioedema
C. Mild fatigue
D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: B. Angioedema
Rationale: Angioedema, a potentially life-threatening swelling of the face or throat, is a
serious adverse effect of lisinopril, requiring immediate discontinuation and medical
attention.
10. A client with a fractured femur is placed in skeletal traction. What is the nurse’s
priority assessment?
A. Skin integrity at pin sites
B. Pain level
C. Range of motion
D. Blood pressure
Correct Answer: A. Skin integrity at pin sites
Rationale: Pin sites in skeletal traction are prone to infection, so assessing for redness,
swelling, or drainage is critical to prevent complications.
11. A nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which
complication should the nurse monitor?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: B. Hyperglycemia
Rationale: TPN contains high glucose concentrations, increasing the risk of
hyperglycemia, which requires monitoring blood glucose levels.
12. A client with pneumonia is prescribed levofloxacin. Which instruction should the
nurse provide?
A. Take with dairy products
B. Report tendon pain immediately
C. Expect weight gain
D. Take with antacids
Correct Answer: B. Report tendon pain immediately
Rationale: Levofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, carries a risk of tendonitis or tendon rupture,
requiring immediate reporting of tendon pain.
13. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected pulmonary edema. Which finding is
most concerning?
A. Dry cough
B. Pink, frothy sputum
C. Mild dyspnea
D. Fever
Correct Answer: B. Pink, frothy sputum
Rationale: Pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in
the alveoli and requiring immediate intervention.
14. A client with diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which laboratory value should the
nurse monitor?
, 4
A. Serum creatinine
B. Platelet count
C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D. Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: A. Serum creatinine
Rationale: Metformin is contraindicated in renal impairment due to the risk of lactic
acidosis, so serum creatinine is monitored to assess kidney function.
15. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which
electrolyte imbalance increases toxicity risk?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Hypokalemia enhances digoxin’s binding to cardiac cells, increasing the risk
of toxicity and arrhythmias.
16. A client with a new tracheostomy requires suctioning. What is the nurse’s priority
action?
A. Suction for 20 seconds
B. Pre-oxygenate with 100% oxygen
C. Use sterile water for suctioning
D. Apply suction during insertion
Correct Answer: B. Pre-oxygenate with 100% oxygen
Rationale: Pre-oxygenation prevents hypoxia during suctioning, which can cause oxygen
desaturation in tracheostomy clients.
17. A nurse is caring for a client with a seizure disorder receiving phenytoin. Which
adverse effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Gingival hyperplasia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypertension
D. Weight loss
Correct Answer: A. Gingival hyperplasia
Rationale: Phenytoin commonly causes gingival hyperplasia, requiring good oral
hygiene and dental monitoring.
18. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with confusion and tremors.
Which medication should the nurse expect to administer?
A. Lorazepam
B. Naloxone
C. Flumazenil
D. Protamine sulfate
Correct Answer: A. Lorazepam
Rationale: Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is used to manage alcohol withdrawal
symptoms, including confusion and tremors, to prevent seizures.
19. A nurse is teaching a client with asthma about using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI).
Which instruction is correct?
A. Inhale quickly and shallowly
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2024 /
2025 – Actual Exam with 170 Real
Questions and Verified Rationales | Pass
with Confidence
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is prescribed furosemide. Which
laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood glucose
D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases potassium excretion, leading to a risk
of hypokalemia, which can cause cardiac arrhythmias, especially in heart failure clients.
Monitoring serum potassium is critical to ensure safety.
2. A client with type 1 diabetes reports feeling shaky and sweaty. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Administer insulin
B. Check blood glucose level
C. Provide a high-protein snack
D. Encourage rest
Correct Answer: B. Check blood glucose level
Rationale: Shaking and sweating are symptoms of hypoglycemia. The nurse’s priority is
to confirm hypoglycemia by checking the blood glucose level before administering a fast-
acting carbohydrate if needed.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer warfarin to a client with atrial fibrillation.
Which laboratory value should be assessed?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Platelet count
D. Serum creatinine
Correct Answer: B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
Rationale: Warfarin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored using INR (therapeutic range:
2.0–3.0 for atrial fibrillation) to ensure effective anticoagulation and minimize bleeding
risk.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving albuterol
via nebulizer. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor?
, 2
A. Bradycardia
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypotension
D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: B. Tachycardia
Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 agonist, can stimulate beta-1 receptors, causing
tachycardia as a common adverse effect. Monitoring heart rate is essential during
administration.
5. A nurse is caring for a client post-myocardial infarction who is prescribed aspirin.
What is the purpose of this medication?
A. Reduce blood pressure
B. Prevent platelet aggregation
C. Decrease heart rate
D. Improve oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: B. Prevent platelet aggregation
Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of thrombus formation
in clients post-myocardial infarction.
6. A client with a new colostomy asks about dietary modifications. Which food should
the nurse recommend avoiding?
A. Broccoli
B. Bananas
C. Yogurt
D. Lean chicken
Correct Answer: A. Broccoli
Rationale: Broccoli, a gas-forming food, can increase flatulence and odor in clients with
a colostomy, which may cause discomfort or pouch issues.
7. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected appendicitis. Which finding should the
nurse report immediately?
A. Rebound tenderness
B. Mild nausea
C. Low-grade fever
D. Decreased appetite
Correct Answer: A. Rebound tenderness
Rationale: Rebound tenderness is a hallmark sign of appendicitis, indicating peritoneal
irritation and possible rupture, requiring immediate surgical evaluation.
8. A client is receiving IV heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which antidote should
the nurse have available?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Naloxone
D. Flumazenil
Correct Answer: B. Protamine sulfate
Rationale: Protamine sulfate reverses heparin’s anticoagulant effects, essential for
managing bleeding complications.
9. A nurse is teaching a client with hypertension about lisinopril. Which adverse effect
should the client report immediately?
, 3
A. Dry cough
B. Angioedema
C. Mild fatigue
D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: B. Angioedema
Rationale: Angioedema, a potentially life-threatening swelling of the face or throat, is a
serious adverse effect of lisinopril, requiring immediate discontinuation and medical
attention.
10. A client with a fractured femur is placed in skeletal traction. What is the nurse’s
priority assessment?
A. Skin integrity at pin sites
B. Pain level
C. Range of motion
D. Blood pressure
Correct Answer: A. Skin integrity at pin sites
Rationale: Pin sites in skeletal traction are prone to infection, so assessing for redness,
swelling, or drainage is critical to prevent complications.
11. A nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which
complication should the nurse monitor?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: B. Hyperglycemia
Rationale: TPN contains high glucose concentrations, increasing the risk of
hyperglycemia, which requires monitoring blood glucose levels.
12. A client with pneumonia is prescribed levofloxacin. Which instruction should the
nurse provide?
A. Take with dairy products
B. Report tendon pain immediately
C. Expect weight gain
D. Take with antacids
Correct Answer: B. Report tendon pain immediately
Rationale: Levofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, carries a risk of tendonitis or tendon rupture,
requiring immediate reporting of tendon pain.
13. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected pulmonary edema. Which finding is
most concerning?
A. Dry cough
B. Pink, frothy sputum
C. Mild dyspnea
D. Fever
Correct Answer: B. Pink, frothy sputum
Rationale: Pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in
the alveoli and requiring immediate intervention.
14. A client with diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which laboratory value should the
nurse monitor?
, 4
A. Serum creatinine
B. Platelet count
C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D. Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: A. Serum creatinine
Rationale: Metformin is contraindicated in renal impairment due to the risk of lactic
acidosis, so serum creatinine is monitored to assess kidney function.
15. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which
electrolyte imbalance increases toxicity risk?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Hypokalemia enhances digoxin’s binding to cardiac cells, increasing the risk
of toxicity and arrhythmias.
16. A client with a new tracheostomy requires suctioning. What is the nurse’s priority
action?
A. Suction for 20 seconds
B. Pre-oxygenate with 100% oxygen
C. Use sterile water for suctioning
D. Apply suction during insertion
Correct Answer: B. Pre-oxygenate with 100% oxygen
Rationale: Pre-oxygenation prevents hypoxia during suctioning, which can cause oxygen
desaturation in tracheostomy clients.
17. A nurse is caring for a client with a seizure disorder receiving phenytoin. Which
adverse effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Gingival hyperplasia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypertension
D. Weight loss
Correct Answer: A. Gingival hyperplasia
Rationale: Phenytoin commonly causes gingival hyperplasia, requiring good oral
hygiene and dental monitoring.
18. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with confusion and tremors.
Which medication should the nurse expect to administer?
A. Lorazepam
B. Naloxone
C. Flumazenil
D. Protamine sulfate
Correct Answer: A. Lorazepam
Rationale: Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is used to manage alcohol withdrawal
symptoms, including confusion and tremors, to prevent seizures.
19. A nurse is teaching a client with asthma about using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI).
Which instruction is correct?
A. Inhale quickly and shallowly
