NSG 233 Final Exam
Mastering the NSG 233 Final Exam: Your
Ultimate Study Guide to Success!
A Comprehensive Exam Study Guide
Current Updated Edition 2025/2026
Hypertension in Pregnancy - ansAssociated with placental abruption.
Gestational Hypertension - ansBP of 140/90 or greater (no proteinuria or edema). BP returns
to baseline by 6 weeks postpartum. , HTN that begins after 20 weeks. Can develop in the first
24 hours after birth.
Severe Preeclampsia - ansBP of 160/100
HELLP Syndrome of Pre-eclampsia - ansHemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelet
hydrolazine - ansthis agent should be avoided in a Pt with SLE. , A vasodilator that relaxes
blood vessels so that blood can flow more easily. Lowers blood pressure with prevents
strokes, etc.. Contraindicated with Indomethacin.
Placental Previa - ansplacenta implanted over cervical os
Placental Abruptio - ansSeparation of placenta from the decidua prior to delivery of the fetus.
normal RBC levls - ans4.8 to 7.1 hemoglobin of 14 to 24 decreasing 12 to 20 in first few
weeks.
convection - ansthe flow of heat from the body surface to cooler ambient air,
radiation - ansthe loss of heat from the body surface to a cooler solid surface not in direct
contact but in relative proximity
evaporation - ansthe loss of heat that occurs when a liquid is converted to a vapor
conduction - ansthe loss of heat from the body surface to color surfaces in direct contact
neonate daily fluid requirement - ansfirst 2 days is 60 to 80, from 3 to 7 days its 100 to 150,
from 8 to 20 days it is 120 to 180
amylase and lipase - ansenzymes not produced until 3 moths by salivary glands and 6 months
by pancreas, needed to breakdown carbs, occurs in high amounts in colostrum, does not have
lipase so babes ability to breakdown fat is diminished.
jaundice levels - anslikely to appear when bilirubin levels exceed 2.5 mg/dl
kernicterus - anslong term consequences of bilirubin toxicity such as hypotonia, delayed
motor skills, hearing loss, cerebral palsy and gaze abnormalities.
milia - anssmall white sebaceous glands
erythema toxicum - ansnewborn rash, found in term neonates during the first 3 weeks of life
caput succedaneum - ansfrom the pressure of the presenting vertex against the cervix.
dissparears within 3 to 4 days crosses suture lines
cephalhematoma - anscollection of blood between a skull bone and its periosteum, DOES
NOT CROSS A CRANIAL SUTURE LINE.
What does APGAR score? When are APGARs taken? - ansHeart Rate, Respirations, Muscle
Tone, Reflex irritability, and Color. Taken at 1 and 5 minutes
How much can a baby hold in their stomach at first? - ansonly 10 ml
How must urine does a newborn produce? How many diapers? - ans30-60 ml/kg/day. 6-8
diapers a day
How many calories does a baby need for the 6 first months? - ans108 kcal/kg/day.
What % of weight loss indicates mild dehydration? Severe dehydration? - ans5% for mild.
10% for severe.
What is milk deficient in? - ansIron
breast pain; most common breast related compliant in women. - ansmastalgia
,NSG 233 Final Exam
Mastering the NSG 233 Final Exam: Your
Ultimate Study Guide to Success!
A Comprehensive Exam Study Guide
Current Updated Edition 2025/2026
noncylic mastalgia - ansno relationship to menstrual cycle and can continue into menopause,
may be constant or intermittent throughout the month and last for several years. symptoms
include a burning, aching, soreness in breast. Pain may be due to trauma, fat necrosis, duct
ectasia, or arthritic pain in chest/neck radiating to the breast
inflammatory condition of breast that occurs most freq in lactating women - ansmastitis
most common between ages 35-50; not usually discrete masses, nodularity instead; usually
accompanied by cyclic pain and tenderness; mass(ses) often cyclic in occurence (movable,
soft) - ansfibrocystic changes
palpable fluid-filled mass - anscysts
common cause of discrete benign breast lumps in young women ages 15-40 years -
ansfibroadenoma
milky secretion due to inappropriate lactation, - ansgalactorrhea
benign, soft, wartlike growth found in the mammary ducts. - ansintraductal papilloma
duct dilation; - ansductal ectasia
transient, noninflammatory enlargement of one or both breasts in men - ansgynecomastia
dermatitis caused by friction between opposing surfaces of skin - ansintertrigo
noninvasive breast cancer - ansintraductal cancers include: ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
and lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS).
unilateral and most likely to progress to invasive breast cancer if left untreated - ansductal
carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
rare breast malignancy characterized by a persistent lesion of the nipple and areola with or
without a palpable mass. - ansPaget's disease
the most malignant formof all breast cancers, is rare. - ansInflammatory breast cancer
tumor site - anssentinel node
milk producing glands - anslobules
milk passages that connect lobules and the nipple - ansducts
breast cancer arises from - ans1)epithelial lining of ducts (most BC arise from ducts and are
invasive)
2)epithelium of lobules
process of sperm production - ansspermatogenesis
never pregnant - ansnulliparous
repair of hernia - ansHerniorrhaphy
removal of one or both testes - ansOrchiectomy
correction of protrusion of urinary bladder through vaginal wall - ansrepair of cystocele
removal of one or both fallopian tubes - ansSalpingectomy
A normal reproductive function that may be altered in a pt who undergoes a prostatectomy is:
- ansproduction of seminal fluid
Estrogen production by the mature ovarian follicle causes: - ansincreased production of
GnRH and FSH
The screening criteria for assessing prostate cancer include a: - ansyearly digital rectal
examination for men age 50 and older
Osteomalacia - ansimpairment of bone mineralization can be caused by vitamin D deficiency
Indications for BMD testing (Women) - ans1) All women > 65
,NSG 233 Final Exam
Mastering the NSG 233 Final Exam: Your
Ultimate Study Guide to Success!
A Comprehensive Exam Study Guide
Current Updated Edition 2025/2026
2) Post menopausal women <65 how have >1 risk factor
3) Premenopausal women who present w/ fractures
Bone Repair - ansBone repairs itself by actively remodeling
- Bone resorption (osteoclasts)
- Bone formation (osteoblasts)
androgens - ansmale hormones
PSA - anslab test that is associated with prostate cancer
chancres
ch 53 - anscharacteristic of syphilis. painless indurated lesions found on the penis, vulva, lips,
mouth, vagina and rectum.
chlamydial infection - anssuperificial mucosal infection caused by chlamydia trachomatis.
genital herpes
ch 53 - anssexually transmitted disease caused by the herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2)
resulting in painful genital or anal vesicular lesions.
gonorrhea
ch 53 - anscaused by gram negative diplococcus. (neisseria gonorrhoeae) infection of the
genitalia, the rectum, and oropharynx. if left untreated, leads to formation of fibrous tissue
and adhesions Tx: in early stages IM cephtriaxone is curative
lymphogranuloma venereum
ch 53 - anschronic sexually transmitted infection, caused by chlamydia trachomatis that
spreads by way of regional lymphatics and may spread to the central nervous system through
the blood
syphillis
ch 53 - ansinfection of the organs and tissues caused by treponema pallidum. infection causes
the prodcuction of antibodies that also react with normal tissues. Tx: PCN-G
bilirubin encephalopathy - ansAcute manifestation of bilirubin toxicity occurring in the first
weeks after birth.
erythroblastosis fetalis - ansAgglutination and hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes caused by
incompatibility between the maternal and fetal blood types, such as when the fetus is Rh-
positive and the mother is Rh-negative.
esophageal atresia - ansCondition in which the esophagus is separated from the stomach and
ends in a blind pouch.
gastroschisis - ansProtrusion of the intestines through a defect in the abdominal wall. The
intestines are not covered by a peritoneal sac or skin.
hydrops fetalis - ansHeart failure and generalized edema in the fetus secondary to severe
anemia resulting from destruction of erythrocytes.
kernicterus - ansChronic and permanent result of bilirubin toxicity.
meningocele - ansProtrusion of the meninges through a defect in the vertebrae; a form of
neural tube defect.
myelomeningocele - ansProtrusion of the meninges and spinal cord through a defect in the
vertebrae; a form of neural tube defect.
neonatal abstinence syndrome - ansA cluster of physical signs exhibited by newborns
exposed in utero to maternal use of substances such as heroin.
, NSG 233 Final Exam
Mastering the NSG 233 Final Exam: Your
Ultimate Study Guide to Success!
A Comprehensive Exam Study Guide
Current Updated Edition 2025/2026
omphalocele - ansProtrusion of the intestines into the base of the umbilical cord. The
intestines are covered by a peritoneal sac.
persistent pulmonary hypertension - ansVasoconstriction of the infant's pulmonary vessels
after birth; may result in right-to-left shunting of blood flow through the ductus arteriosus, the
foramen ovale, or both.
spina bifida - ansDefective closure of the bony spine that encloses the spinal cord; a type of
neural tube defect.
tracheoesophageal fistula - ansAbnormal connection between the esophagus and trachea.
transient tachypnea of the newborn - ansCondition of rapid respirations caused by inadequate
absorption of fetal lung fluid.
How is TTN different from RDS? - ansTransient tachypnea of the newborn is thought to be
caused by failure of fetal lung fluid to be absorbed completely in late preterm, full-term, or
preterm infants. Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) occurs in preterm infants as a result of
inadequate surfactant. It is less serious than RDS but is the most common respiratory cause of
NICU admission.
Why is there resistance of blood flow into the lungs in PPHN? - ansInfants with PPHN have
constriction of the pulmonary blood vessels from inadequate oxygen levels. This increases
resistance to blood flow into the lungs and causes blood to flow through the foramen ovale
and patent ductus arteriosus.
How can kernicterus be prevented? - ansKernicterus can be prevented by identifying women
whose infants are at risk for blood incompatibilities, giving Rh-negative mothers Rh immune
globulin, recognizing infants with bilirubin levels that are not normal, and instituting
phototherapy when it is needed.
How can the nurse help reduce bilirubin levels in infants receiving phototherapy? - ansNurses
can help reduce bilirubin level in an infant receiving phototherapy by ensuring that the lights
or blankets are functioning and positioned properly; reducing the infant's time out of
phototherapy; ensuring adequate intake to increase removal of bilirubin by frequent stools;
preventing cold stress or hypoglycemia, which would decrease albumin-binding sites for
bilirubin; and turning the infant frequently to expose all areas to the lights.
What is the role of the nurse in caring for the infant with sepsis? - ansThe role of the nurse in
sepsis is to identify early signs, notify the physician, coordinate treatment, observe for
change, and support the family.
Why are IDMs more likely to develop macrosomia? - ansMacrosomia occurs in IDMs
because of excessive transfer of glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids from the mother to the
fetus. This results in fetal production of insulin and excessive growth in the fetus.
Why are IDMs at risk for hypoglycemia after birth? - ansIDMs may develop hypoglycemia
after birth because they have high levels of insulin even though they no longer receive
glucose from the mother. Infants may need early feeding as a result.
How can the nurse deal with the inability to rest in infants with prenatal exposure to drugs? -
ansThe nurse can help the drug-exposed infant to rest by minimizing stimulation, swaddling
in a flexed position, organizing care to avoid interruptions, and providing a pacifier.
How can the nurse promote bonding when there has been prenatal drug abuse? - ansThe
nurse can promote bonding when there has been prenatal drug abuse by helping the mother
Mastering the NSG 233 Final Exam: Your
Ultimate Study Guide to Success!
A Comprehensive Exam Study Guide
Current Updated Edition 2025/2026
Hypertension in Pregnancy - ansAssociated with placental abruption.
Gestational Hypertension - ansBP of 140/90 or greater (no proteinuria or edema). BP returns
to baseline by 6 weeks postpartum. , HTN that begins after 20 weeks. Can develop in the first
24 hours after birth.
Severe Preeclampsia - ansBP of 160/100
HELLP Syndrome of Pre-eclampsia - ansHemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelet
hydrolazine - ansthis agent should be avoided in a Pt with SLE. , A vasodilator that relaxes
blood vessels so that blood can flow more easily. Lowers blood pressure with prevents
strokes, etc.. Contraindicated with Indomethacin.
Placental Previa - ansplacenta implanted over cervical os
Placental Abruptio - ansSeparation of placenta from the decidua prior to delivery of the fetus.
normal RBC levls - ans4.8 to 7.1 hemoglobin of 14 to 24 decreasing 12 to 20 in first few
weeks.
convection - ansthe flow of heat from the body surface to cooler ambient air,
radiation - ansthe loss of heat from the body surface to a cooler solid surface not in direct
contact but in relative proximity
evaporation - ansthe loss of heat that occurs when a liquid is converted to a vapor
conduction - ansthe loss of heat from the body surface to color surfaces in direct contact
neonate daily fluid requirement - ansfirst 2 days is 60 to 80, from 3 to 7 days its 100 to 150,
from 8 to 20 days it is 120 to 180
amylase and lipase - ansenzymes not produced until 3 moths by salivary glands and 6 months
by pancreas, needed to breakdown carbs, occurs in high amounts in colostrum, does not have
lipase so babes ability to breakdown fat is diminished.
jaundice levels - anslikely to appear when bilirubin levels exceed 2.5 mg/dl
kernicterus - anslong term consequences of bilirubin toxicity such as hypotonia, delayed
motor skills, hearing loss, cerebral palsy and gaze abnormalities.
milia - anssmall white sebaceous glands
erythema toxicum - ansnewborn rash, found in term neonates during the first 3 weeks of life
caput succedaneum - ansfrom the pressure of the presenting vertex against the cervix.
dissparears within 3 to 4 days crosses suture lines
cephalhematoma - anscollection of blood between a skull bone and its periosteum, DOES
NOT CROSS A CRANIAL SUTURE LINE.
What does APGAR score? When are APGARs taken? - ansHeart Rate, Respirations, Muscle
Tone, Reflex irritability, and Color. Taken at 1 and 5 minutes
How much can a baby hold in their stomach at first? - ansonly 10 ml
How must urine does a newborn produce? How many diapers? - ans30-60 ml/kg/day. 6-8
diapers a day
How many calories does a baby need for the 6 first months? - ans108 kcal/kg/day.
What % of weight loss indicates mild dehydration? Severe dehydration? - ans5% for mild.
10% for severe.
What is milk deficient in? - ansIron
breast pain; most common breast related compliant in women. - ansmastalgia
,NSG 233 Final Exam
Mastering the NSG 233 Final Exam: Your
Ultimate Study Guide to Success!
A Comprehensive Exam Study Guide
Current Updated Edition 2025/2026
noncylic mastalgia - ansno relationship to menstrual cycle and can continue into menopause,
may be constant or intermittent throughout the month and last for several years. symptoms
include a burning, aching, soreness in breast. Pain may be due to trauma, fat necrosis, duct
ectasia, or arthritic pain in chest/neck radiating to the breast
inflammatory condition of breast that occurs most freq in lactating women - ansmastitis
most common between ages 35-50; not usually discrete masses, nodularity instead; usually
accompanied by cyclic pain and tenderness; mass(ses) often cyclic in occurence (movable,
soft) - ansfibrocystic changes
palpable fluid-filled mass - anscysts
common cause of discrete benign breast lumps in young women ages 15-40 years -
ansfibroadenoma
milky secretion due to inappropriate lactation, - ansgalactorrhea
benign, soft, wartlike growth found in the mammary ducts. - ansintraductal papilloma
duct dilation; - ansductal ectasia
transient, noninflammatory enlargement of one or both breasts in men - ansgynecomastia
dermatitis caused by friction between opposing surfaces of skin - ansintertrigo
noninvasive breast cancer - ansintraductal cancers include: ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
and lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS).
unilateral and most likely to progress to invasive breast cancer if left untreated - ansductal
carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
rare breast malignancy characterized by a persistent lesion of the nipple and areola with or
without a palpable mass. - ansPaget's disease
the most malignant formof all breast cancers, is rare. - ansInflammatory breast cancer
tumor site - anssentinel node
milk producing glands - anslobules
milk passages that connect lobules and the nipple - ansducts
breast cancer arises from - ans1)epithelial lining of ducts (most BC arise from ducts and are
invasive)
2)epithelium of lobules
process of sperm production - ansspermatogenesis
never pregnant - ansnulliparous
repair of hernia - ansHerniorrhaphy
removal of one or both testes - ansOrchiectomy
correction of protrusion of urinary bladder through vaginal wall - ansrepair of cystocele
removal of one or both fallopian tubes - ansSalpingectomy
A normal reproductive function that may be altered in a pt who undergoes a prostatectomy is:
- ansproduction of seminal fluid
Estrogen production by the mature ovarian follicle causes: - ansincreased production of
GnRH and FSH
The screening criteria for assessing prostate cancer include a: - ansyearly digital rectal
examination for men age 50 and older
Osteomalacia - ansimpairment of bone mineralization can be caused by vitamin D deficiency
Indications for BMD testing (Women) - ans1) All women > 65
,NSG 233 Final Exam
Mastering the NSG 233 Final Exam: Your
Ultimate Study Guide to Success!
A Comprehensive Exam Study Guide
Current Updated Edition 2025/2026
2) Post menopausal women <65 how have >1 risk factor
3) Premenopausal women who present w/ fractures
Bone Repair - ansBone repairs itself by actively remodeling
- Bone resorption (osteoclasts)
- Bone formation (osteoblasts)
androgens - ansmale hormones
PSA - anslab test that is associated with prostate cancer
chancres
ch 53 - anscharacteristic of syphilis. painless indurated lesions found on the penis, vulva, lips,
mouth, vagina and rectum.
chlamydial infection - anssuperificial mucosal infection caused by chlamydia trachomatis.
genital herpes
ch 53 - anssexually transmitted disease caused by the herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2)
resulting in painful genital or anal vesicular lesions.
gonorrhea
ch 53 - anscaused by gram negative diplococcus. (neisseria gonorrhoeae) infection of the
genitalia, the rectum, and oropharynx. if left untreated, leads to formation of fibrous tissue
and adhesions Tx: in early stages IM cephtriaxone is curative
lymphogranuloma venereum
ch 53 - anschronic sexually transmitted infection, caused by chlamydia trachomatis that
spreads by way of regional lymphatics and may spread to the central nervous system through
the blood
syphillis
ch 53 - ansinfection of the organs and tissues caused by treponema pallidum. infection causes
the prodcuction of antibodies that also react with normal tissues. Tx: PCN-G
bilirubin encephalopathy - ansAcute manifestation of bilirubin toxicity occurring in the first
weeks after birth.
erythroblastosis fetalis - ansAgglutination and hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes caused by
incompatibility between the maternal and fetal blood types, such as when the fetus is Rh-
positive and the mother is Rh-negative.
esophageal atresia - ansCondition in which the esophagus is separated from the stomach and
ends in a blind pouch.
gastroschisis - ansProtrusion of the intestines through a defect in the abdominal wall. The
intestines are not covered by a peritoneal sac or skin.
hydrops fetalis - ansHeart failure and generalized edema in the fetus secondary to severe
anemia resulting from destruction of erythrocytes.
kernicterus - ansChronic and permanent result of bilirubin toxicity.
meningocele - ansProtrusion of the meninges through a defect in the vertebrae; a form of
neural tube defect.
myelomeningocele - ansProtrusion of the meninges and spinal cord through a defect in the
vertebrae; a form of neural tube defect.
neonatal abstinence syndrome - ansA cluster of physical signs exhibited by newborns
exposed in utero to maternal use of substances such as heroin.
, NSG 233 Final Exam
Mastering the NSG 233 Final Exam: Your
Ultimate Study Guide to Success!
A Comprehensive Exam Study Guide
Current Updated Edition 2025/2026
omphalocele - ansProtrusion of the intestines into the base of the umbilical cord. The
intestines are covered by a peritoneal sac.
persistent pulmonary hypertension - ansVasoconstriction of the infant's pulmonary vessels
after birth; may result in right-to-left shunting of blood flow through the ductus arteriosus, the
foramen ovale, or both.
spina bifida - ansDefective closure of the bony spine that encloses the spinal cord; a type of
neural tube defect.
tracheoesophageal fistula - ansAbnormal connection between the esophagus and trachea.
transient tachypnea of the newborn - ansCondition of rapid respirations caused by inadequate
absorption of fetal lung fluid.
How is TTN different from RDS? - ansTransient tachypnea of the newborn is thought to be
caused by failure of fetal lung fluid to be absorbed completely in late preterm, full-term, or
preterm infants. Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) occurs in preterm infants as a result of
inadequate surfactant. It is less serious than RDS but is the most common respiratory cause of
NICU admission.
Why is there resistance of blood flow into the lungs in PPHN? - ansInfants with PPHN have
constriction of the pulmonary blood vessels from inadequate oxygen levels. This increases
resistance to blood flow into the lungs and causes blood to flow through the foramen ovale
and patent ductus arteriosus.
How can kernicterus be prevented? - ansKernicterus can be prevented by identifying women
whose infants are at risk for blood incompatibilities, giving Rh-negative mothers Rh immune
globulin, recognizing infants with bilirubin levels that are not normal, and instituting
phototherapy when it is needed.
How can the nurse help reduce bilirubin levels in infants receiving phototherapy? - ansNurses
can help reduce bilirubin level in an infant receiving phototherapy by ensuring that the lights
or blankets are functioning and positioned properly; reducing the infant's time out of
phototherapy; ensuring adequate intake to increase removal of bilirubin by frequent stools;
preventing cold stress or hypoglycemia, which would decrease albumin-binding sites for
bilirubin; and turning the infant frequently to expose all areas to the lights.
What is the role of the nurse in caring for the infant with sepsis? - ansThe role of the nurse in
sepsis is to identify early signs, notify the physician, coordinate treatment, observe for
change, and support the family.
Why are IDMs more likely to develop macrosomia? - ansMacrosomia occurs in IDMs
because of excessive transfer of glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids from the mother to the
fetus. This results in fetal production of insulin and excessive growth in the fetus.
Why are IDMs at risk for hypoglycemia after birth? - ansIDMs may develop hypoglycemia
after birth because they have high levels of insulin even though they no longer receive
glucose from the mother. Infants may need early feeding as a result.
How can the nurse deal with the inability to rest in infants with prenatal exposure to drugs? -
ansThe nurse can help the drug-exposed infant to rest by minimizing stimulation, swaddling
in a flexed position, organizing care to avoid interruptions, and providing a pacifier.
How can the nurse promote bonding when there has been prenatal drug abuse? - ansThe
nurse can promote bonding when there has been prenatal drug abuse by helping the mother
