AAAE ACE Operations Module 1 Exam Questions And Answers

How many airports are in the NPIAS and what three types are included? - ANS 3,380 airports; 1) commercial service, 2) reliever, 3) select GA What are the three defining characteristics of commercial service airports? - ANS 1) open to the public 2) receive scheduled passenger service 3) 2,500 or more enplaned passenger per year What type of airport has commercial service and over 10,000 annual enplanements? - ANS Primary airport Primary airports are split into 4 categories, what are they and how are they defined? - ANS Large Hub (1% of all US annual enplanements); Medium Hub (0.25% to 1%); Small Hub (0.05-0.25%); Non-Hub (10,000 to 0.05%) How many enplanements characterize a non-primary commercial service airport? - ANS between 2,500 and 10,000 enplanements per year What characterizes a reliever airport? - ANS 1) open to the public; 2) 100 or more based aircraft or 25,000 annual operations General aviation airports can be included in the NPIAS under what circumstances? - ANS If they have at least 10 locally based aircraft and are at least 20 miles from a NPIAS airport What plan provides guidelines for an airport's capital development over a 20-year timeframe? - ANS Master Plan What is the set of drawings that shows the airport's long-term development, updated in accordance with grant assurance number 29? - ANS Airport Layout Plans Runway design standards are based on what three primary factors? - ANS 1) airplane design group (wingspan); 2) aircraft approach category (approach speed); 3) approach visibility minimums Taxiway and taxilane design standards are based on what primary factor? - ANS airplane design group (wingspan) How is airplane design group determined and categorized? - ANS Based on the aircraft's wingspan and tail height whichever is most restrictive; 6 categories, I thru VI, where I is the smallest/shortest and VI is the largest/tallest How is aircraft approach category determined and categorized? - ANS Based on aircraft approach speed; 5 categories, A thru E, where A is the slowest and E is the fastest What are the 6 categories of airplane design group? - ANS I (tail height 20', wingspan 49'); II (tail height 20 - 30', wingspan 49 - 79'); III (tail height 30 - 45'), wingspan 79-118'); IV (tail height 45 - 60', wingspan 118 - 171'); V (tail height 60 - 66', wingspan 171 - 214'); VI (tail height 66 - 80', wingspan 214 - 262') What are the 5 aircraft approach categories and the criteria for each category? - ANS A (91 knots); B (91 - 121 knots); C (121 - 141 knots); D (141 - 166 knots); E (166 knots) When is a cross-runway recommended? - ANS When a runway orientation provides less than 95% wind coverage for any aircraft forecasted to use the airport What are some of the factors affecting the location and orientation of runways? - ANS wind, available airspace, environmental factors, obstructions, topography, ATCT visibility, wildlife hazards To ensure water run-off, what is the normal grade of a runway and runway shoulder? - ANS 1 - 1.5% cross-section grade for the runway and 1.5 - 5% for the runway shoulder What is the purpose of a runway shoulder? - ANS resist runway erosion, passage of vehicles and surface for aircraft that veer off the runway How is runway width determined and what is the range of standard widths? - ANS ARC and approach visibility minimums; 60 - 200' What is the range of widths for a runway safety area (RSA)? - ANS 120 - 150' What is the term for an area formed by imaginary lines connecting the visibility points of two different runways? - ANS Runway Visibility Zones (RVZ) What is the term for the beginning or end of the full-strength runway pavement available for takeoff and landing? - ANS Runway threshold When a runway threshold is not located at the start of the full-strength pavement what is it called and why would this occur? - ANS Displaced threshold; it is used to identify the first point for landing aircraft to avoid an airspace obstruction, to mitigate environmental considerations, or to lengthen an RSA or OFA What use is the portion of runway behind a displaced threshold? - ANS It can be used for takeoffs in either direction, and landing from the opposite direction. Taxiways are designed to allow aircraft taxi at what speed? - ANS 20mph How are taxiway widths determined and what is the standard range of widths? - ANS Based on wingspan and wingtip clearance (ARC); 25 - 100' What are the standard widths of the taxiway safety area? - ANS 49 - 262' What are the three primary determinants for optimum airport apron design? - ANS available space, aircraft mix and terminal configuration What are three aircraft-terminal docking assistance designs? - ANS Fixed guidance markers such as AGNIS (Azimuth Guidance for Nose-in Stands) and PAPA (Parallax Aircraft Parking Aids) and an electronic display of azimuth and distance such as AVDGS (Advanced Docking Guidance System) How does the FAA ensure accurate data is collected and maintained about airports in the National Airspace System? - ANS The FAA uses four forms (FAA Form 5010-1, 2,3 and 5) collectively known as the Airport Master Record to collect and maintain data on individual airports What are the uses of the four FAA Forms 5010? How often are they updated? - ANS Annually (or sooner if a change occurs) updated airport data for: civil public use airports (Form 5010-1); civil private use airports (Form 5010-2); newly constructed public use airports (Form 5010-3); newly constructed private-use airports (Form 5010-5) Does Part 139 apply to heliports? - ANS No Does FAA restrict helicopter operations to helipads or heliports? - ANS No Since heliports don't have runways, what are the key design elements? - ANS The TLOF (Touchdown and Liftoff Area), the FATO (Final Approach and Takeoff Area), a safety area, wind sock and preferably two approach/departure paths to the TLOF/FATO independent of active runway approaches/departures with an associated protection zone to provide additional space in the event of an emergency landing What is the definition of and dimensions for a heliport protection zone? - ANS The area under approach/departure path starting at the FATO perimeter; extends 280ft for GA facilities and 400ft for transport facilities; land preferably owned by the heliport sponsor