Pharmacology Practice TESTS BANKS WITH ANSWERS A+ GRADE.
Rationale: Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin
monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before administering this
drug.
A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction.
Which medication prescription decreases both preload and afterload?
A) Nitroglycerin.
B) Propranolol (Inderal).
C) Morphine.
D) Captopril (Capoten). - Nitroglycerin
Rationale: Nitroglycerin (A) is a nitrate that causes peripheral vasodilation and decreases contractility,
thereby decreasing both preload and afterload. (B) is a beta adrenergic blocker that decreases both heart
rate and contractility, but only decreases afterload. Morphine (C) decreases myocardial oxygen
consumption and preload. Capoten (D) is an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that acts to
prevents vasoconstriction, thereby decreasing blood pressure and afterload.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release oxycodone
prescription?
A) As needed.
B) Every 12 hours.
C) Every 24 hours.
D) Every 4 to 6 hours. - Every 12 hours
Rationale: A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve moderate to severe
pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the best around-the-clock pain management.
Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as needed schedule
(A). (C) is inadequate for continuous pain management. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours (D) may
jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.
,A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. What is the optimum time
for the nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered. B) Immediately before the next antibiotic dose
is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given. - Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is
given
Rationale: Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its lowest, which is typically just before the
next dose is given (B). (A, C, and D) do not describe the optimum time for obtaining a trough level of an
antibiotic.
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin LMWH. During
administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this medication. Which is
the best response for the nurse to provide?
A) This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation.
B) This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C) This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs.
D) This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. - This medication is a blood
thinner given to prevent blood clot formation
Rationale: Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant that
inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophylactically to prevent
postoperative venous thrombosis (A) or to treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following
knee and abdominal surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot
formation (C). The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence operative wound
healing (D).
A client with Parkinson's disease is taking carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet). Which observation by the nurse
should indicate that the desired outcome of the medication is being achieved?
A) Decreased blood pressure.
B) Lessening of tremors.
, C) Increased salivation.
D) Increased attention span. - Lessening of tremors
Rationale: Sinemet increases the amount of levodopa to the CNS (dopamine to the brain). Increased
amounts of dopamine improve the symptoms of Parkinson's, such as involuntary movements, resting
tremors (B), shuffling gait, etc. (A) is a side effect of Sinemet. Decreased drooling would be a desired
effect, not (C). Sinemet does not affect (D).
A client is receiving metoprolol Lopressor SR. What assessment is most important for the nurse to
obtain?
A) Temperature.
B) Lung sounds.
C) Blood pressure.
D) Urinary output. - Blood pressure
Rationale: It is most important to monitor the blood pressure (C) of clients taking this medication because
Lopressor is an antianginal, antiarrhythmic, antihypertensive agent. While (A and B) are important data to
obtain on any client, they are not as important for a client receiving Lopressor as (C). Intake and output
ratios and daily weights should be monitored while taking Lopressor to assess for signs and symptoms of
congestive heart failure, but (D) alone does not have the importance of (C).
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an insect sting. Which prescription
should the nurse prepare to administer this client?
A) Dopamine
B) Ephedrine
C) Epinephrine
D) Diphenhydramine. - Epinephrine
Rationale: Epinephrine (C) is an adrenergic agent that stimulate beta receptors to increase cardiac
automaticity in cardiac arrest and relax bronchospasms in anaphylaxis. Dopamine (A) is a vasopressor
used to treat clients with shock. Ephedrine (B) causes peripheral vasoconstriction and is used in the
treatment of nasal congestion. Diphenhydramine (D) is an antihistamine decongestant used in the
treatment of mild allergic reactions and motion sickness.
Rationale: Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin
monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before administering this
drug.
A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction.
Which medication prescription decreases both preload and afterload?
A) Nitroglycerin.
B) Propranolol (Inderal).
C) Morphine.
D) Captopril (Capoten). - Nitroglycerin
Rationale: Nitroglycerin (A) is a nitrate that causes peripheral vasodilation and decreases contractility,
thereby decreasing both preload and afterload. (B) is a beta adrenergic blocker that decreases both heart
rate and contractility, but only decreases afterload. Morphine (C) decreases myocardial oxygen
consumption and preload. Capoten (D) is an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that acts to
prevents vasoconstriction, thereby decreasing blood pressure and afterload.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release oxycodone
prescription?
A) As needed.
B) Every 12 hours.
C) Every 24 hours.
D) Every 4 to 6 hours. - Every 12 hours
Rationale: A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve moderate to severe
pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the best around-the-clock pain management.
Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as needed schedule
(A). (C) is inadequate for continuous pain management. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours (D) may
jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.
,A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. What is the optimum time
for the nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered. B) Immediately before the next antibiotic dose
is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given. - Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is
given
Rationale: Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its lowest, which is typically just before the
next dose is given (B). (A, C, and D) do not describe the optimum time for obtaining a trough level of an
antibiotic.
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin LMWH. During
administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this medication. Which is
the best response for the nurse to provide?
A) This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation.
B) This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C) This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs.
D) This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. - This medication is a blood
thinner given to prevent blood clot formation
Rationale: Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant that
inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophylactically to prevent
postoperative venous thrombosis (A) or to treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following
knee and abdominal surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot
formation (C). The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence operative wound
healing (D).
A client with Parkinson's disease is taking carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet). Which observation by the nurse
should indicate that the desired outcome of the medication is being achieved?
A) Decreased blood pressure.
B) Lessening of tremors.
, C) Increased salivation.
D) Increased attention span. - Lessening of tremors
Rationale: Sinemet increases the amount of levodopa to the CNS (dopamine to the brain). Increased
amounts of dopamine improve the symptoms of Parkinson's, such as involuntary movements, resting
tremors (B), shuffling gait, etc. (A) is a side effect of Sinemet. Decreased drooling would be a desired
effect, not (C). Sinemet does not affect (D).
A client is receiving metoprolol Lopressor SR. What assessment is most important for the nurse to
obtain?
A) Temperature.
B) Lung sounds.
C) Blood pressure.
D) Urinary output. - Blood pressure
Rationale: It is most important to monitor the blood pressure (C) of clients taking this medication because
Lopressor is an antianginal, antiarrhythmic, antihypertensive agent. While (A and B) are important data to
obtain on any client, they are not as important for a client receiving Lopressor as (C). Intake and output
ratios and daily weights should be monitored while taking Lopressor to assess for signs and symptoms of
congestive heart failure, but (D) alone does not have the importance of (C).
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an insect sting. Which prescription
should the nurse prepare to administer this client?
A) Dopamine
B) Ephedrine
C) Epinephrine
D) Diphenhydramine. - Epinephrine
Rationale: Epinephrine (C) is an adrenergic agent that stimulate beta receptors to increase cardiac
automaticity in cardiac arrest and relax bronchospasms in anaphylaxis. Dopamine (A) is a vasopressor
used to treat clients with shock. Ephedrine (B) causes peripheral vasoconstriction and is used in the
treatment of nasal congestion. Diphenhydramine (D) is an antihistamine decongestant used in the
treatment of mild allergic reactions and motion sickness.
