NSG 500-Advanced Health Assessment Exam
2025 Questions and Answers
Which of the following is inconsistent with the description of benign prostatic hyperplasia
(BPH)?
A. obliterated median sulcus
B. size larger than 2.5 cm × 3 cm
C. sensation of incomplete emptying
D. boggy gland - ANS D. Boggy gland
When assessing a 78-year-old man with suspected BPH, the NP considers that:
A. prostate size does not correlate well with severity of symptoms.
B. BPH affects less than 50% of men of this age.
C. he is at increased risk for prostate cancer.
D. limiting fluids is a helpful method of relieving severe symptoms. - ANS A. prostate size
does not correlate well with severity of symptoms.
Concerning BPH, which of the following statements is true?
A. Digital rectal examination is accurate in diagnosing the condition.
B. The use of a validated patient symptom tool is an important part of diagnosing the condition.
C. Prostate size directly correlates with symptoms and bladder emptying.
D. Bladder distention is usually present in early disease. - ANS B. The use of a validated
patient symptom tool is an important part of diagnosing the condition.
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,The presentation of acute epididymitis in an otherwise-well 22-year-old man includes:
A. the presence of a positive Prehn sign
B. low back pain.
C. absent cremasteric reflex.
D. diffuse abdominal pain. - ANS A. the presence of a positive Prehn sign
Risk factors for prostate cancer include all of the following except:
A. African ancestry.
B. history of genital trauma.
C. family history of prostate cancer.
D. high-fat diet. - ANS B. history of genital trauma.
A 24-year-old man presents with sudden onset of left-sided scrotal pain. He reports having
intermittent unilateral testicular pain in the past but not as severe this current episode.
Confirmation of testicular torsion would include all of the following findings except:
A. unilateral loss of the cremasteric reflex.
B. the affected testicle held higher in the scrotum.
C. testicular swelling.
D. relief of pain with scrotal elevation. - ANS D. relief of pain with scrotal elevation.
In assessing a man with testicular torsion, the NP is most likely to note:
A. elevated PSA level.
B. white blood cells reported in urinalysis.
C. left testicle most often affected.
D. increased testicular blood flow by color-flow Doppler ultrasound. - ANS C. left testicle
most often affected
Which is the most potent risk factor for PVD?
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, A. HTN
B. older age
C. cigarette smoking
D. leg injury - ANS C. cigarette smoking
Typically, the earliest sign of venous insufficiency is:
A. edema
B. altered pigmentation
C. skin atrophy
D. shiny skin - ANS A. edema
What is the "lub" or the S1 sound? - ANS Closure of the AV valves
Beginning of systole
What is the "dub" or the S2 sound? - ANS Closure of the semi lunar valves
End of systole
Where is the S1 the loudest? - ANS APEX
"S1=1=A" (a for apex!)
Where is the s2 the loudest? - ANS BASE
"S2=2=B" (b for base)
Pg. 3 Copyright © 2025 Jasonmcconell. ALL RIGHTS RESERVED.
2025 Questions and Answers
Which of the following is inconsistent with the description of benign prostatic hyperplasia
(BPH)?
A. obliterated median sulcus
B. size larger than 2.5 cm × 3 cm
C. sensation of incomplete emptying
D. boggy gland - ANS D. Boggy gland
When assessing a 78-year-old man with suspected BPH, the NP considers that:
A. prostate size does not correlate well with severity of symptoms.
B. BPH affects less than 50% of men of this age.
C. he is at increased risk for prostate cancer.
D. limiting fluids is a helpful method of relieving severe symptoms. - ANS A. prostate size
does not correlate well with severity of symptoms.
Concerning BPH, which of the following statements is true?
A. Digital rectal examination is accurate in diagnosing the condition.
B. The use of a validated patient symptom tool is an important part of diagnosing the condition.
C. Prostate size directly correlates with symptoms and bladder emptying.
D. Bladder distention is usually present in early disease. - ANS B. The use of a validated
patient symptom tool is an important part of diagnosing the condition.
Pg. 1 Copyright © 2025 Jasonmcconell. ALL RIGHTS RESERVED.
,The presentation of acute epididymitis in an otherwise-well 22-year-old man includes:
A. the presence of a positive Prehn sign
B. low back pain.
C. absent cremasteric reflex.
D. diffuse abdominal pain. - ANS A. the presence of a positive Prehn sign
Risk factors for prostate cancer include all of the following except:
A. African ancestry.
B. history of genital trauma.
C. family history of prostate cancer.
D. high-fat diet. - ANS B. history of genital trauma.
A 24-year-old man presents with sudden onset of left-sided scrotal pain. He reports having
intermittent unilateral testicular pain in the past but not as severe this current episode.
Confirmation of testicular torsion would include all of the following findings except:
A. unilateral loss of the cremasteric reflex.
B. the affected testicle held higher in the scrotum.
C. testicular swelling.
D. relief of pain with scrotal elevation. - ANS D. relief of pain with scrotal elevation.
In assessing a man with testicular torsion, the NP is most likely to note:
A. elevated PSA level.
B. white blood cells reported in urinalysis.
C. left testicle most often affected.
D. increased testicular blood flow by color-flow Doppler ultrasound. - ANS C. left testicle
most often affected
Which is the most potent risk factor for PVD?
Pg. 2 Copyright © 2025 Jasonmcconell. ALL RIGHTS RESERVED.
, A. HTN
B. older age
C. cigarette smoking
D. leg injury - ANS C. cigarette smoking
Typically, the earliest sign of venous insufficiency is:
A. edema
B. altered pigmentation
C. skin atrophy
D. shiny skin - ANS A. edema
What is the "lub" or the S1 sound? - ANS Closure of the AV valves
Beginning of systole
What is the "dub" or the S2 sound? - ANS Closure of the semi lunar valves
End of systole
Where is the S1 the loudest? - ANS APEX
"S1=1=A" (a for apex!)
Where is the s2 the loudest? - ANS BASE
"S2=2=B" (b for base)
Pg. 3 Copyright © 2025 Jasonmcconell. ALL RIGHTS RESERVED.
