Final Exam: BIOD 351/ BIOD351 Complete Exam: Pharmacology| Questions and Verified Answers | Latest 2025/ 2026 Update | 100 OUT OF 100 | GRADED A – Portage Learning.

Final Exam: BIOD 351/ BIOD351 Complete Exam: Pharmacology| Questions and Verified Answers | Latest 2025/ 2026 Update | 100 OUT OF 100 | GRADED A – Portage Learning. Question: What is the genomic signal that tells the cell to start transcription? Answer: promoter Question: What is the genomic signal that tells the cell to start translation? Answer: AUG start codon Question: Which of the following is an accurate statement about enhancers? a) 5'-3' orientation is important for function b) they are located 5' of the promoter c) they are within 10 kb of the coding sequences d) they regulate translational efficiency e) transcription factors bind to them Answer: transcription factors bind to them Question: myostatin (inhibits/promotes) myogenesis Answer: inhibits Question: Which of the following is the correct order of developmental steps leading to a specialized cell type? A. determination, differentiation, specification B. differentiation, specification, determinati C. differentiation, determination, specification D. specification, determination, differentiation Answer: specification, determination, differentiation Question: Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Cell fates are reversible after specification. B. During autonomous specification, cells require communication with surrounding cells for commitment to a fate. C. Differentiation involves changes in gene expression, morphology, and function. D. Cell fates are irreversible after determination Answer: False - During autonomous specification, cells require communication with surrounding cells for commitment to a fate Question: Asymmetric cell division describes which of the following? A. Normal cell division. B. A property of fully differentiated cells. C. Meiosis D. A property of stem cells that ensures self- renewal. Answer: A property of stem cells that ensures self- renewal - A cell division that produces unequal daughter cells. Question: Which of the following best describes the most important properties of the Yamanaka factors for iPSC generation? A. Viral proteins that induce pluripotency. B. Signaling receptors in trophoblasts. C. Multipotential D. Pioneering transcription factors expressed in ES cells. Answer: Pioneering transcription factors expressed in ES cells. Question: What is the expected result when siRNA is used in a cell? A. It reduces expression of a specific protein. B. It reduces transcription rate of a specific gene. C. It directly binds to DNA in the nucleus. D. It enhances expression of a specific gene. Answer: It reduces expression of a specific protein Question: A plasmid is which of the following? A. Circular extrachromosomal DNA B. A chromosome C. A protein D. A bacteria Answer: Circular extrachromosomal DNA Question: You are making a transgene, where do you predict it will integrate into the genome? A. At a specific gene locus. B. A random chromosomal location C. On a plasmid D. It does not integrate Answer: A random chromosomal location Question: Which of the following is a true statement about a transgenic organism? 1. A transgene is in all cells of an embryo. 2. A transgene is only in a subset of cells of the embryo. 3. A transgene is only in germ cells (eggs and sperm). 4. A transgene is not found in cells Answer: A transgene is in all cells of an embryo. Question: You are making a knockout mouse, after neomycin (positive) selection you treat the surviving cells with gancyclovir (negative selection) and more cells die. What does cell death after gancyclovir treatment indicate? a. The targeting vector randomly inserted into the genome b. The targeting vector inserted into the genome by homologous recombination c. The targeting vector did not insert into the genome Answer: The targeting vector randomly inserted into the genome Question: What will be the result of thymidine kinase gene (TK) being incorporated into an ES cell's genome? a. It will make cells resistant to neomycin. b. It will make cells resistant to Gancyclovir. c. It will make cells sensitive to Gancyclovir. d. It will make cells sensitive to neomycin. Answer: It will make cells sensitive to Gancyclovir Question: Which of the following describes some of the key attributes of embryonic stem cells that made these cells useful for the creation of knockout mice? a. They are pluripotent and can be cultured indefinitely in an undifferentiated state. b. They are monopotent and can be cultured indefinitely in an undifferentiated state. c. They are pluripotent and cannot be cultured indefinitely. d. They are monopotent and cannot be cultured indefinitely. Answer: They are pluripotent and can be cultured indefinitely in an undifferentiated state Question: You have frozen a sample of tissue from the developing hindlimb and would like to analyze the levels of FGF8 protein. Which of the following would be the best technique? a. in situ hybridization b. western blotting c. transcriptomics d. siRNA Answer: western blotting Question: Which of the following binds to enhancer sites? a. Transcription factors b. RNA polymerase II c. DNA polymerase d. Spliceosome proteins Answer: Transcription factors Question: Induced pluripotent stem cells, or iPS cells, have a potential that is closest to which of the following? a. blastocyst inner cell mass cell b. epidermal differentiated cell c. radial glial cell of the brain d. lung alveolar type II cell Answer: blastocyst inner cell mass cell Question: The engineered CRISPR/Cas9 system is a pioneering approach for genome editing. Which of the following components is required for targeting Cas9 to specific sites in the genome. a. loxp sites with the specific gene of interest b. CRISPR regions in the Pax6 gene c. co-expressing a guide RNA complementary to the targeted sequence d. injecting a fertilized zygote with Cas9 bound to a transcription factor that normally binds the targeted region Answer: co-expressing a guide RNA complementary to the targeted sequence Question: Embryonic stem (ES) cells represented a scientific breakthrough and allowed for the development of technologies such as knock-out mice. Which of the following best describes the key attributes of ES cells? A. They are monopotent. B. They are pluripotent and can be manipulated in culture. C. They are multipotent but cannot become germ cells. D. They are totipotent and cannot be manipulated in culture Answer: They are pluripotent and can be manipulated in culture. Question: You have ES cells that have been electroporated with a targeting vector and survived double selection, this indicates which of the following? A. The targeting vector is not present in the ES cell genome. B. The targeting vector has integrated into the genome at a random location. C. The targeting vector has integrated into the genome via nonhomologous recombination at the target locus. D. The targeting vector has integrated into the genome via homologous recombination at the target locus Answer: The targeting vector has integrated into the genome via homologous recombination at the target locus Question: You have created a knock out of the gene Nkx2.5. Which of the following most accurately describes what you have done? A. Replaced the wild type Nkx2.5 alleles with a neomycin resistance gene in ES cells using homologous recombination. B. Replaced the wild type Nkx2.5 alleles with a neomycin resistance gene in ES cells using nonhomologous recombination. C. Cloned the promoter of Nkx2.5 upstream of green fluorescent protein and introduced it into the genome by nonhomologous recombination. D. Cloned promoter of Nkx2.5 downstream of green fluorescent protein and introduced into the genome by homologous recombination Answer: Replaced the wild type Nkx2.5 alleles with a neomycin resistance gene in ES cells using homologous recombination Question: If you have a mouse strain that expresses Cre recombinase (Cre) under the control of a heart-specific gene promoter, which of the following is true? A. All cells in the mouse express Cre PROTEIN. B. Cells in the skin will express Cre mRNA. C. Only cells in the heart will express Cre PROTEIN. D. Only cells in the heart will contain DNA encoding Cre Answer: Only cells in the heart will express Cre PROTEIN Question: You have bred a mouse with multiple genetic modifications. The first is the expression of a transgene encoding Cre Recombinase under the control of the Albumin gene promoter, which is liver-specific. The second is the targeted insertion of flanking loxp sites ("floxed") around one allele of "gene X". Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Only one functional allele of Gene X will be expressed in the liver. B. The "loxp-Gene X-loxp" DNA sequence will be present in the brain. C. Two functional alleles of Gene X will be expressed in the heart. D. The "loxp-Gene X-loxp" DNA sequence Answer: will be present in the liver False - The "loxp-Gene X-loxp" DNAsequence will be present in the liver Question: What is the outcome of mammalian meiosis? A. Always four haploid germ cells. B. Always four diploid germ cells. C. One haploid germ cell. D. It depends on the sex of the germ cell. Answer: It depends on the sex of the germ cell Question: Question: Which cells undergo meiosis? A. Embryonic stem cells B. Germ cells C. Somatic cells Answer: Germ cells Question: Which of the following accurately describes the products of meiosis in female mammals? 1. four diploid oocytes 2. four haploid oocytes and 4 polar bodies 3. one diploid oocyte and 2-3 polar bodies 4. one haploid oocyte and 2-3 polar bodies Answer: one haploid oocyte and 2-3 polar bodies Question: A 25 year-old man visits a urologist to investigate why he is unable to have children. Semen analysis revealed round nonmotile sperm with a DNA content at n. The patient's infertility is most likely due to a functional defect in which of the following? A. mitosis B. spermiogenesis C. Meiosis D. Leydig cells Answer: spermiogenesis Question: SCF secretion from the Sertoli cells to spermatic cells is an example of _________ signaling. Fill in the blank. A. Juxtacrine B. Paracrine C. Autocrine D. Endocrine Answer: Paracrine Question: In the ovary, oocytes are held at diplotene of meiosis I at birth. How is the diplotene block released? 1) Progesterone activates c-Mos, which phosphorylates maturation promotion factor (MPF). 2) A Ca 2+ influx induces the activity of calmodulin, which induces calmodulin and it phosphorylates maturation promotion factor (MPF) 3) Calmodulin dependent kinase II (CamKII) and calpain are activated by progesterone and they degrade cytostatic factor (CSF). 4) Progesterone activates c-Mos, which phosphorylates cytostatic factor (CSF) Answer: Progesterone activates c-Mos, whichphosphorylates maturation promotion factor(MPF) Question: What crucial reagent did Frederick Sanger help create to sequence DNA that became the mainstay of the Human Genome Project? a. Fluorescently conjugated antibodies b. deoxynucleotides (dNTPs) c. In situ hybridization riboprobes d. chain-terminating dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) Answer: chain-terminating dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) Question: Which of the following is the end result of spermatogenesis? a. haploid round spermatid b. mature spermatozoa c. spermatogonia d. type B spermatogonium Answer: mature spermatozoa Question: True or False: The sperm nucleus is transcriptionally silent. Answer: False Question: You have found a compound that you suspect is a chemoattractant for sperm. If so, it should_________. Fill in the blank. A. decrease sperm mitochondrial respiration B. induce random sperm movement C. bind to sperm D. bind to eggs Answer: bind to sperm Question: True or False: Sperm that is aspirated by a needle fromthe epididymis is fully motile and able to fertilize an egg Answer: False - the spermatozoa will need to undergo capacitation first Question: You have a female patient that has unexplained infertility. Her male partner has normal spermatozoa. During in vitro fertilization it is noted that the spermatozoa do not bind to and fertilize her eggs. What is the probable defect? A. The is no slow block to polyspermy B. There is no fast block to polyspermy C. There is a defect in ZP2 D. There is a defect in Bindin Answer: There is a defect in ZP2 Question: Which of the following cell types is formed from epiblast cells that migrate through the primitive streak? A. ectoderm B. primary hypoblast C. mesoderm Answer: mesoderm Question: All the cells of the embryo proper (all the cells in your body now) derive from which of the following cells? A. hypoblast B. trophoblast C. epiblast Answer: epiblast Question: In the mammalian embryo, which structure is essential to set up the anterior-posterior axis? A. Anterior visceral endoderm B. Inner cell mass C. Node D. Sperm entry site E. Primitive streak Answer: Anterior visceral endoderm Question: Disruption of which process would directly lead to a failure in the initial formation of the endoderm? a. Embryonic Folding b. Neurulation c. Somitogenesis d. Gastrulation Answer: Gastrulation Question: What is the morphogen that directs the location of the midbrain/hindbrain boundary? a. FGF8 b. Shh c. Nodal d. Oct4 FGF8 Question: The neural tube is derived which of the following germ layers? a. ectoderm b. endoderm c. mesoderm Answer: ectoderm Question: Which of the following structures is NOT derived from the epiblast in a human embryo? a. trophoblast b. mesoderm c. ectoderm d. endoderm Answer: trophoblast Question: During gastrulation, toward which tissue do cells typically migrate after undergoing an EMT at the primitive streak? a. polar bodies b. uterine wall c. hypoblast d. inner cell mass Answer: hypoblast Question: In humans, cleavage begins in the ___________. a. ovary b. uterus c. vagina d. oviduct Answer: oviduct Question: A 25 year-old woman who is pregnant for the first time undergoes amniocentesis during the 25 th week of pregnancy. This testing reveals an increased level of acetylcholinesterase in the amniotic fluid. Acetylcholinesterase is normally produced in the CNS and cannot cross the blood brain barrier. This test suggests which of the following fetal abnormalities? A. Gastrulation defect B. Spinal bifida occulta C. Situs inversus D. Anencephaly Answer: Anencephaly Question: The neural tube is regionalized by developmental gene regulation. Which of the following correctly matches the gene and specified region? A.Shh - ventralizing the neural tube B.FGF8 - forebrain formation C.Hox - dorsal neural tube specification D.Folate - rhombomere axial specification Answer: Shh - ventralizing the neural tube Question: Your pet cat, Sage, has significant age-related decline in hindlimb motor function, likely due to a loss of neurons in the ventral spinal cord. You collect some cat fibroblasts and dedifferentiate them into ES cells using a standard iPSC induction procedure. To direct differentiation into motor neurons for transplantation into the spinal cord, which of the following combinations would be most appropriate. A.Low [Shh], high [FGF8] B.High [Wnt antagonist], high [BMP] C.High [Shh], high [RA] D.Low [BMP], high [cyclopamine] Answer: High [Shh], high [RA] Question: Carbon monoxide has been demonstrated to disrupt the normal formation of somites. If an embryo is briefly exposed to carbon monoxide during the earliest period of somitogenesis, the formation of several somites can be disrupted. Which of the following vertebrae would be most affected? A. Lumbar (lower back) vertebrae B. Thoracic (chest) vertebrae C. Cervical (neck) vertebrae Answer: Cervical (neck) vertebrae - somitogenesis proceeds from the mostrostral to the most caudal, so the earliestsomites will form the cervical vertebrae. Question: The vertebrae are formed by resegmentation and fusion of the _________ compartment of a somite and the _________ compartment of the immediately posterior/caudal somite. A. caudal, rostral B. caudal, caudal C. rostral, rostral D. rostral, caudal Answer: caudal, rostral Question: Key components of the human segmentation clock are gradients and cycling gene expression within the presomitic mesoderm. Gradients of ________________ from the caudal presomitic mesoderm interact with cyclically expressed genes such as ___________________ to regulate somitogenesis. A. FGF8, lunatic fringe B. FGF8, Notch C. retinoic acid, lunatic fringe D. retinoic acid, Notch Answer: FGF8, lunatic fringe Question: Vertebral segments are formed but completely FUSED. Which of the following best matches the underlying cause of the vertebral fusion? A. Faster cycling expression of Notch pathway genes B. Slower cycling expression of Notch pathway genes C. Loss of Hox gene expression D. Loss of function mutations in Mesp2 Answer: Loss of function mutations in Mesp2 Question: ______________ is the morphogen expressed in the _____________ that caudalizes the limb bud. Fill in the blanks with best answer. A. FGF8, apical ectodermal ridge B. FGF8, zone of polarizing activity C. SHH, apical ectodermal ridge D. SHH, zone of polarizing activity E. WNT7A, dorsal ectoderm Answer: SHH, zone of polarizing activity Question: What is the morphogen that is expressed in the zone of polarizing activity (ZPA) ? a. SHH b. ephrin c. FGF8 d. retinoic acid (RA) e. Delta Answer: SHH Question: Which transcription factor is expressed by cells that will become the sclerotome? a. Wnt6 b. Mesp2 c. Pax1 d. Pax3 Answer: Pax1 Question: Axial skeletal muscle and bones are derived from which embryonic tissue? a. neural crest b. neural tube c. somites d. endoderm Answer: somites Question: SHH morphogen gradients affect digit specification. Ectopic expression of SHH in the chick _________ limb bud can lead to a mirror image duplication of the wing. Fill in the blank. a. rostral b. dorsal c. ventral d. distal Answer: rostral Question: The genome of an individual with congenital defects of the limb was sequenced. The researchers found that a region 500-700 bp UPSTREAM of the WNT7A transcriptional start site was significantly mutated. What is the most likely hypothesis for how WNT7A may be involved in this individual's phenotype? a. There is no role for WNT7A in limb development b. The genetic mutation altered the WNT7A promoter, leading to changes in gene expression. c. The coding sequence of WNT7A protein was changed, leading to translation of a dysfunctional protein. d. The mutation disrupted a site normally targeted by microRNAs, causing a microdeletion in the WNT7A genomic sequence. Answer: The genetic mutation altered the WNT7A promoter, leading to changes in gene expression. Question: Osteogenesis imperfecta is a disease that results from a genetic mutation that disrupts the formation of ____________ that is required for strength of bone. a. hydroxyapatite b. hyaluronan c. collagen I d. myofibers Answer: collagen 1 Question: You have removed the zone of polarizing activity (ZPA) from a limb bud. The addition of SHH soaked beads into the area where you removed the ZPA is sufficient to _________ the limb bud. a. caudalize b. rostralize c. dorsalize d. ventralize Answer: caudalize Question: The endocardial cushion cells have important roles in heart formation. Defects in the endocardial cushions have been associated with which of the following? a. septation defects b. looping defects c. spina bifida d. situs inversus Answer: septation defects Question: The process of ventral closure of the embryo is important for which of the following events? a. Fusion of cardiac primordia into a single linear heart tube. b. Specification of the cardiac primordia in the splanchnic mesoderm. c. Formation of the second heart field. d. Formation of cardiogenic progenitors in the epiblast. Answer: a. Fusion of cardiac primordia into a single linear heart tube Question: Tbx5 is expressed in the developing limbs and heart. You want to examine the role of Tbx5 in the development of the heart only. Which approach would you choose? a. Cre/Lox using a limb specific promoter driving expression of Cre recombinase and a floxed Tbx5 gene b. Cre/Lox using the Tbx5 promoter to drive Cre expression and a floxed Tbx5 gene c. Knock out Tbx5 in ES cells and inject into a blastocyst. d. Cre/lox with a heart specific promoter driving expression of Cre recombinase and a floxed Tbx5 gene Answer: d. Cre/lox with a heart specific promoter driving expression of Cre recombinase and a floxed Tbx5 gene. Question: Which of the following represents an important outcome of looping? a. Establishment of left-right asymmetry b. Establishment of anterior-posterior asymmetry c. Specification of the atria and ventricles d. Development of the secondary heart field Answer: Establishment of left-right asymmetry Question: Which of the following structures does NOT contain any significant contributions from the neural crest lineage? a. Notochord b. Mandible c. Dorsal Root Ganglion d. Cardiac outflow tract Answer: notochord Question: The developing heart changes from anterior-posterior polarity to left-right polarity during which of the following events? a. cardiac looping b. septation c. ventral closure of the embryo d. formation of the paired heart primordia Answer: cardiac looping Question: Melanocytes are derived from which embryonic tissue? a. neural crest b. neural tube c. somites d. presomitic mesoderm Answer: Neural crest Question: Holt-Oram syndrome presents with defects of the upper limb and heart. Which of the following statements regarding the reason for these defects is true. a. Mef2c is mutated and this affects the muscle of the limb and heart. b. Tbx4 is mutated and this affects the specification of the limb and chambers of the heart. c. Tbx5 is mutated and this gene defines the identity of the upper limb and and is necessary for heart development. d. Nkx2-5 is overexpressed and this inhibits differentiation of the limb and heart progenitors. Answer: c. Tbx5 is mutated and this gene defines the identity of the upper limb and and is necessary for heart development. Question: The neural crest is derived from _______. An important step in neural crest induction is activation of __________. A. ectoderm, Shh B. endoderm, Wnt C. mesoderm, Smad D. ectoderm, β-catenin Answer: ectoderm, β-catenin Question: Why are craniofacial defects such as cleft palate or cleft lip a signal to physicians to look for more serious defects such as heart abnormalities in newborns? A. These organs all form at exactly the same time in the embryo. B. These organs all depend upon a common and important contribution from neural crest. C. A common defect in gastrulation could be the basis for defects in these organs. D. Each of these structures is exposed to the amniotic fluid during development Answer: B. These organs all depend upon a common and important contribution from neural crest. Question: The neural crest migrates from the __________ neural tube and then into in the skin along the ________ pathway to generate melanocytes. This explains why you often see pigmentation changes in Waardenburg syndrome. A. ventral, dorsal B. dorsal, ventral C. ventral, ventrolateral D. dorsal, dorsolateral Answer: dorsal, dorsolateral Question: You have surgically removed the anterior endoderm from a one day old chick embryo. The embryo is subsequently cultured and you perform ISH for Tbx5. What do you predict will happen? A. Tbx5 will show a normal pattern of expression in the cardiac crescent. B. Tbx5 will be expressed only in the left cardiogenic mesoderm C. Tbx5 will be expressed in two bilaterally separable hearts D. Tbx5 will not be expressed Answer: Tbx5 will not be expressed Question: Heart looping ________ . 1. results in anterior-posterior polarity being established. 2. converts anterior-posterior polarity to left-right polarity. 3. forms the valves of the heart. 4. is regulated by the endocardial cushions. Answer: converts anterior-posterior polarity to left-right polarity. Question: Overexpression of which of the following would be most likely to further enhance lower motor neuron survival? A. Bax B. Bcl-2 C. Caspase-9 D. NGF Answer: Bcl-2 - improves cell survival Question: What would happen if you created a knockoutmouse that failed to express Ephrin in the somites? A. Neural crest would fail to migrate out of the neural tube B. Neural crest would avoid the somites and migrate along the neural tube C. Neural crest would migrate randomly through any part of the somite D. Neural crest would only migrate through the anterior part of the somites Answer: E. Neural crest would only migrate through the posterior part of the somites Neural crest would migrate randomlythrough any part of the somite Question: Axonal growth cones are highly dynamic structures that extend wave like extensions known as lamellipodia and finger like extensions called ________. _____ are crucial intracellular signaling molecules that translate extracellular signals into cytoskeletal changes within the growth cone. a. Autophagosomes, Bcl-2 family members b. Microtubules, Semaphorins c. Dendrites, neurotrophins d. Filopodia, Rho GTPases Answer: Filopodia, Rho GTPase Question: You have conditionally deleted Bax from only neural crest cells using a Wnt1:Cre line in mice. Which of the following outcomes would you expect at birth in the semutant mice relative to controls? A. Increased number of DRG neurons B. Decreased number of spinal motor neurons C. Decreased number of DRG neurons D. Increased number of spinal motor neurons E. No change in neuronal number Answer: Increased number of DRG neurons Question: You would like to design a transgene for a viral vector that restores normal SCN9A expression in NOCICEPTIVE NEURONS in these patients. The PROMOTER from which of the following genes would be most appropriate for the transgene? A. NGF B. TrkA C. NT3 D. TrkC Answer: TrkA Question: Anterior Viseral Endoderm cells instruct which axis? Answer: Embryonic anterior-posterior (rostro-caudal) Question: Maternal Uterine Wall cells instruct which axis? Answer: Embryonic dorsal-ventral Question: Zone of Polarizing Activity instructs which axis? Answer: Rostro-caudal patterning of hand/paw Question: Notochord cells instruct which axis? Answer: Dorsal-ventral patterning of spinal cord Question: If you treat a developing embryo with a toxin that blocks the formation of neuromuscular junctions what will happen to myogenesis? Answer: a. It would not happen at all. b. The myotome would form, but myogenesis would halt. c. Myogenesis would be inhibited after formation of secondary myotubes. d. Myogenesis would be inhibited after formation of primary myotubes. d. Myogenesis would be inhibited after formation of primary myotubes