ACTUAL COMPLETE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
SOLVED CORRECTLY SOLUTIONS ( EXPERT VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS )/NEWEST UPDATE .
When assessing a patient with suspected cardiac-related chest
pain, which of the following questions would be most
appropriate to ask?
A: Were you at rest when the pain began?
B: Is the pain crushing or dull in nature?
C: Can you describe the quality of the pain?
D: Does the pain move to your arms? - ANSWER-C: Can you
describe the quality of the pain?
When assessing a patient with sinus tachycardia at a rate of
135 beats/min, you should recall that:
A: the preferred treatment for tachycardia less than 150
beats/min is a calcium channel blocker.
B: rate-related symptoms are uncommon in patients with a
heart rate less than 150 beats/min.
,C: a heart rate greater than 130 beats/min often causes
significant hemodynamic compromise.
D: tachycardia in a patient with cardiac ischemia is beneficial in
that it improves coronary perfusion. - ANSWER-B: rate-related
symptoms are uncommon in patients with a heart rate less than
150 beats/min.
You are assessing a man with a acute chest pain. As you are
inquiring about the quality of his pain, he clenches his fist. This
is called __________ sign and nonverbally conveys a feeling of:
- ANSWER-Levine's, pressure.
When assessing a patient's pulse, you note that it is fast and
has an irregularly irregular pattern. On the basis of these
findings, which of the following cardiac rhythms would MOST
likely be seen on the cardiac monitor?
A: Ventricular tachycardia
B: Uncontrolled atrial fibrillation
C: Supraventricular tachycardia
D: Second-degree AV block type 1 - ANSWER-B: Uncontrolled
atrial fibrillation
Appropriate treatment for asystole includes:
,A: epinephrine 1:10,000 and advanced airway management.
B: supraglottic airway placement and antidysrhythmic therapy.
C: vasopressin every 3 to 5 minutes and tracheal intubation.
D: transcutaneous cardiac pacing and epinephrine 1:10,000. -
ANSWER-A: epinephrine 1:10,000 and advanced airway
management.
When assessing lead II in a patient with a heart rate of 70
beats/min, the Q-T interval is considered prolonged if it is:
A: twice the width of the QRS complex.
B: greater than one half of the R-R interval.
C: consistently greater than 0.20 seconds.
D: three times the length of the P-R interval. - ANSWER-B:
greater than one half of the R-R interval.
You are assessing a 59-year-old woman who complains of
chest pressure. When you are looking at her list of
medications, you note that she takes Vasotec. What type of
medication is this?
A: Calcium channel blocker
B: Beta-blocker
C: Parasympathetic blocker
D: ACE inhibitor - ANSWER-D: ACE inhibitor
, Unlike a second-degree AV block type I, a second-degree AV
block type II is characterized by:
A: dissociation of the P waves and QRS complexes.
B: a progressive lengthening of the P-R interval.
C: consistent P-R intervals following conducted P waves.
D: a ventricular rate that is less than 50 beats/min. - ANSWER-
C: consistent PR intervals following conducted P waves.
Ventricular ejection fraction is defined as the: - ANSWER-
Percentage of blood in the ventricle pumped out during a
contraction.
You are attempting to resuscitate a 50-year-old man in cardiac
arrest. The patient has a history of congestive heart failure,
hypertension, and cirrhosis of the liver. The cardiac monitor
reveals a slow, wide complex rhythm. CPR is ongoing and the
patient has been intubated. In addition to looking for potentially
reversible causes of the patient's condition, further treatment
should include:
A: one breath every 5 to 6 seconds, 40 units of vasopressin
every 5 minutes, and transcutaneous pacing.