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ARDMS Echo RDCS board registry practice test questions and Answers.pdf

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ARDMS Echo RDCS board registry practice test questions and A

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Subido en
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ARDMS Echo RDCS board registry practice test questions and Answers



C: E to A reversal
D: dagger shaped waveform -
a

Renal cell carcinoma most commonly metastasizes
to the heart through the
A: IVC
B: portal venous system
C: lymphatic system
D: aorta -
a

Which type of cardiomyopathy is related to fatty
and fibrous tissue replacement of the myocardium
of the right ventricle?
A: right ventricular hemochromatosis
B: lipomatous septal hypertrophy
C: arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
D: endomyocardial fibrosis -
c

The pattern of wall hypertrophy in hypertensive
heart disease is ______________, and in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy the pattern is usually ______________
A: symmetric, the same
B: symmetric, asymmetric
C: asymmetric, symmetric
D: focal, diffuse -
b

A 22yr old patient presents for an echo and you
identify biventricular wall thickening, mild
pericardial effusion and thickening of the leaflets of
all four valves. Which of the following is the most
likely cause for these findings?
A: amyloidosis
B: hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C: carcinoid disease
D: rheumatic fever -
a

A patient presents for an echo due to a recent
stroke. The order states that they are looking for an
embolic source for the stroke. She has been
admitted to the hospital and is currently on her
second day of Heparin treatment due to a recent
diagnosis of DVT in her left leg. A recent VQ scan
was normal with no evidence of pulmonary
embolism. Which of the following is a potential
reason for why the study was ordered?
A: to evaluate the patient for CHF
B: to evaluate the patient for a possible vegetation on the tricuspid valve
C: to evaluate the patient for a possible patent foramen ovale
D: to evaluate the patient for a possible VSD -
c

,Which of the following is a normal response seen

,with stress echocardiography?
A: decrease in left ventricular size in diastole and reduced fractional shortening
B: hyperdynamic wall motion and increase of EF%
C: ST segment depression on EKG
D: ST segment elevation on EKG -
b

A new atrial septal defect is a complication most
commonly seen with what procedure?
A: transcatheter aortic valve implantation
B: coronary artery stent placement
C: septal ablation for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D: balloon mitral valvotomy -
d

Which of the following adjustments would improve
the appearance of contrast on the echo image?
A: Turn off harmonic imaging
B: Use multiple focal zones
C: Decrease output power
D: Increase the thermal index -
c

What effect will a mechanical index(Ml) of 1.0 have
on a contrast echo exam?
A: An MI setting of 1.0 or greater is preferred for contrast exams.
B: The increased beam intensity will burst the contrast bubbles quickly.
C: Mechanical index has no effect on contrast exams. The thermal index must be properly set for an
optimal contrast exam.
D: The decreased beam intensity will reduce the appearance of the bubbles on the image. -
b

When placing the electrodes on a patient for a 12
lead EKG for to a stress echo, the electrode for left
arm is placed:
A: 2cm below the left clavicle
B: at the anterior axillary line between the last rib and the iliac crest
C: left forearm
D: right forearm -
a

How is the contraction velocity of the left atrial
appendage evaluated?
A: M-mode sample line positioned approximately 1 cm proximal to the entry of the appendage into the
body of the LA
B: M-mode sample line positioned approximately across the left atrium and the body of the left atrial
appendage
C: PW Doppler sample volume positioned 1cm proximal to the entry of the appendage into the body of the
LA
D: PW Doppler sample volume positioned in the center of the left atrial appendage -
c

Systole is defined as:
A: from the end of the isovolumic contraction period to the start of the isovolumic relaxation period
B: from mitral valve closure to aortic valve closure
C: from the end of the isovolumic relaxation period to the start of the isovolumic contraction period
D: from the opening of the aortic valve to aortic valve closure -

, b

If the heart rate is 80bpm and the stroke volume is
50mL, what is the cardiac output?
A: 4000mL
B: 400 L/min
C: 4 mL/min
D: 4 L/min -
d

Which of the following should be suspected on the
echo in the presence of a diastolic murmur?
A: aortic stenosis
B: MVP
C: ASD
D: mitral stenosis -
d

Which of the following adjustments should be
made to the Doppler settings when evaluating left
ventricular inflow in a patient with constrictive
pericarditis?
A: Decrease the PRF to demonstrate the expected low velocity peaks of the mitral waveform
B: Decrease the sweep speed
C: Increase the PRF to demonstrate the expected E peak velocities greater than 2.0m/s
D: Increase the sweep speed -
b

The motion of which of the following wall segments
can be evaluated on the apical four chamber view?
A: basal anteroseptal wall
B: mid anteroseptal wall
C: lateral right ventricular wall
D: basal inferolateral wall -
c

Which of the following is the most common type of
infiltrative cardiomyopathy to develop restrictive
cardiomyopathy?
A: endomyocardial fibrosis
B: amyloidosis
C: sarcoidosis
D: Fabry disease -
b

Which of the following lab tests should be
performed regularly for a patient with a Starr-
Edwards valve?
A: staphylococcus aureus levels
B: prothrombin time
C: white blood cell count
D: eosinophil count -
b

Which of the following is the most likely EF% on a
patient with dilated cardiomyopathy?
A: 45%
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