Chamberlain University
NR- 507 Advanced Pathophysiology
NR- 507 Final Exam
NR- 507 Adv Pathophysiology - Week 8 Final Exam
Course Title and Number: NR-507 Final Exam
Exam Title: Midterm, Finals, Certification and Assessment
Exam Date: Exam 2025- 2026
Instructor: ____ [Insert Instructor’s Name] _______
Student Name: ___ [Insert Student’s Name] _____
Student ID: ____ [Insert Student ID] _____________
Examination
Time: - ____ Hours: ___ Minutes
Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully.
2. Answer all questions.
3. Use the provided answer sheet to mark your responses.
4. Ensure all answers are final before submitting the exam.
5. Please answer each question below and click Submit when you
have completed the Exam.
6. This test has a time limit, The test will save and submit
automatically when the time expires
7. This is Exam which will assess your knowledge on the course
Learning Resources.
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NR- 507 Adv Pathophysiology - Week 8 Final Exam Complete
Question 1- 100 April 2025 (Actual Exam Proctored via Exemplify
) With Correct Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+ |
2025- 2026
NR- 507 Adv Pathophysiology - Week 8 Final Exam
NR- 507 Final Exam
NR- 507 Advanced Pathophysiology
Chamberlain University
Read All Instructions Carefully and Answer All the
Questions Correctly Good Luck: -
This Is the Actual NR 507 Advanced
Pathophysiology Week 8 Final Exam Proctored
Using Examplify
If U need Help With this or Other Tests For Chamberlain
or any Other Institutions Fell Free To Contact us Via
The Contacts Above
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This Is The Last Question 100
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NR-507 Adv Pathophysiology - Week 8 Final
Exam Complete Question 1-100
Question 1
Which of the following strategies is commonly recommended
for managing panic disorder? (4 points)
A. Limiting physical activity to prevent panic attacks
B. Avoidance of all stressors
C. Slow, diaphragmatic breathing and relaxation techniques
D. Caffeine consumption to stay alert and distract from panic
thoughts
Correct Answer = C
Rationale >>: Slow, diaphragmatic breathing and relaxation
techniques help to activate the parasympathetic nervous
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system, counteracting the body's fight-or-flight response during
a panic attack.
Question 2
A 74-year-old male is a candidate for dialysis. Which of the
following are the most likely contributing factors, based on
history? (4 points)
A. Hypertension and a GFR = 46 mL/min
B. Hyperlipidemia and a GFR = 60 mL/min
C. Anemia and a GFR = 50 mL/min
D. Type 2 diabetes and a GFR = 27 mL/min
Correct Answer = D
Rationale >>: Type 2 diabetes is a leading cause of end-
stage renal disease. A GFR of 27 mL/min indicates significantly
impaired kidney function, making dialysis necessary.
Question 3
A 35-year-old female presents with the sudden onset of
weakness on the right side of her face. She also reports
increased tearing from the right eye, altered sense of taste on
the anterior two-thirds of her tongue, and difficulty closing her
right eye. The patient is otherwise healthy and denies any other
neurological symptoms. Based on these findings, what is the
most likely diagnosis? (4 points)
A. Bell's palsy
B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Stroke
Correct Answer = A
Rationale >>: Bell's palsy is a sudden, unilateral facial nerve
(cranial nerve VII) paralysis. Symptoms include weakness on
one side of the face, difficulty closing the eye, excessive
tearing, and altered taste sensation on the anterior two-thirds
of the tongue — all of which match this patient's presentation.
Bell's palsy typically occurs in otherwise healthy individuals and
without other focal neurological deficits.
Question 4
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What neurotransmitter imbalance is commonly associated with
the pathophysiology of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? (4
points)
A. Dopamine excess in the limbic system
B. Abnormalities in the norepinephrine and serotonin systems
C. Acetylcholine overactivity in the hippocampus
D. Serotonin deficiency in the frontal cortex
Correct Answer = B
Rationale >>: Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is
commonly associated with dysregulation of both
norepinephrine (NE) and serotonin (5-HT). These
neurotransmitters play key roles in mood regulation, arousal,
and the stress response.
Question 5
A 57-year-old male presents to the primary care clinic with the
following symptoms: weight loss, blood in the stool, and pain on
swallowing. Which of the following do these symptoms
represent? (3 points)
A. Warning signs of GERD
B. Atypical of GERD
C. Typical of GERD
D. Associated symptoms of GERD
Correct Answer = B
Rationale >>: While GERD (Gastroesophageal Reflux
Disease) commonly presents with heartburn and regurgitation,
symptoms like weight loss, blood in the stool, and pain on
swallowing (odynophagia) are not typical and may suggest a
more serious underlying condition requiring further
investigation.
Question 6
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is commonly caused by H. pylori
infection and taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
(NSAIDS). Which of the choices below are considered additional
risk factors for PUD? (3 points)
A. Taking bisphosphonates
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B. All the choices are correct
C. Smoking and alcohol consumption
D. Taking potassium
Rationale >>: Each of the listed factors can contribute to
peptic ulcer disease (PUD): taking bisphosphonates (known to
irritate the GI lining), smoking and alcohol consumption
(impairing mucosal defenses and increasing acid production),
and taking potassium chloride (can be harsh on the GI tract).
Question 7
The NP prescribed an SSRI for the initial treatment of a client
with major depression. On a one-month follow-up visit, the
client reports continued symptoms of depression. Before
making a change in the client's treatment plan, which of the
following is an important consideration regarding the effects of
antidepressant medications? (4 points)
A. It is unusual for the individual to continue to exhibit
symptoms after one month
B. Approximately 50% of depressed individuals may not show a
favorable response during initial treatment to an
antidepressant drug
C. The lack of response to the initial antidepressant after one
month requires a referral to a mental health provider
D. Evidence does not support prescribing another
antidepressant medication
Correct Answer = B
Rationale >>: It is well-documented that a significant
percentage of individuals with depression do not achieve
remission with the first antidepressant prescribed. It typically
takes 4 to 6 weeks or longer for the full therapeutic effect of an
SSRI to be evident.
Question 8
Increasing evidence reveals that pharmacotherapy alone is not
effective in preventing the recurrences of bipolar disorder.
Which strategy below is recommended in the treatment of
bipolar disorder? (3 points)
A. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
B. Psychosocial Interventions
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C. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
D. Individual counseling
Correct Answer = B
Rationale >>: Psychosocial interventions, such as cognitive-
behavioral therapy, family-focused therapy, and interpersonal
and social rhythm therapy, are crucial adjuncts to
pharmacotherapy in managing bipolar disorder and preventing
relapses.
Question 9
Which of the following statements best describes the role of the
hypothalamus in hormone regulation? (4 points)
A. The hypothalamus receives sensory information and
integrates it to regulate hormone secretion from the pituitary
gland
B. The hypothalamus directly produces and releases hormones
into the bloodstream
C. The hypothalamus stores and releases hormones produced
by the adrenal glands
D. The hypothalamus controls the synthesis of insulin in the
pancreas
Correct Answer = A
Rationale >>: The hypothalamus is the primary control
center for the endocrine system. It receives neural signals and
produces releasing and inhibiting hormones that regulate the
anterior and posterior pituitary glands.
Question 10
A 32-year-old client presents with persistent and excessive
worry about various aspects of their life, including work, family,
and health, lasting for at least six months. The client reports
feeling restless, fatigued, and irritable, with muscle tension and
difficulty concentrating. After diagnosing the client with
generalized anxiety disorder, which of the following is a first-
line medication that the NP could prescribe? (4 points)
A. Paroxetine (Paxil)
B. Venlafaxine (Effexor)
C. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
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D. All choices are correct
Correct Answer = D
Rationale >>: Paroxetine (Paxil), Venlafaxine (Effexor), and
Escitalopram (Lexapro) are all established first-line medications
for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD). They belong to the
SSRI and SNRI classes of antidepressants, which have
demonstrated efficacy in treating GAD.
Question 11
What is the term commonly used to describe the first
demyelinating event in multiple sclerosis (MS), often
characterized by neurological symptoms that last for at least 24
hours? (3 points)
A. First exacerbation
B. Primary attack
C. Clinically isolated syndrome
D. Initial flare-up
Correct Answer = C
Rationale >>: Clinically isolated syndrome (CIS) is the term
used to describe the first episode of neurological symptoms
caused by demyelination that lasts at least 24 hours. It is often
the precursor to a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis.
Question 12
A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with a 4-month
history of intermittent abdominal pain that feels like "burning in
the upper part of my stomach." It occurs most often 1 hour
after a meal. These symptoms are consistent with what type of
ulcer? (4 points)
A. Acute gastritis
B. Gastric ulcer
C. Stress ulcer
D. Duodenal ulcer
Correct Answer = B
Rationale >>: Gastric ulcers typically cause burning pain in
the upper abdomen, often 1 hour after eating. The pain is due
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to stomach acid irritating the ulcer and can be worsened by
eating.
Question 13
The pathophysiological alterations that cause appendicitis can
be attributed to: (4 points)
A. Weakening of the muscular layers of the appendix
B. Obstruction of the appendix lumen by fecaliths or foreign
bodies
C. Excessive production of digestive enzymes in the appendix
D. Autoimmune response targeting the appendix tissue
Correct Answer = B
Rationale >>: Appendicitis is most commonly caused by
obstruction of the appendix lumen, often due to fecaliths
(hardened stool) or sometimes by foreign bodies or tumors.
This obstruction leads to increased pressure, reduced blood
flow, and inflammation, which can result in infection.
Question 14
Which of the following is most critical in identifying a seizure
disorder and establishing the cause and onset? (3 points)
A. Health history
B. Blood glucose level measurement
C. Lumbar puncture results
D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) results
Correct Answer = A
Rationale >>: A thorough health history is crucial for
identifying a seizure disorder. It provides essential details about
the patient's symptoms, frequency, triggers, and potential
underlying causes (e.g., prior head injury, family history of
epilepsy).
Question 15
An adolescent presents with acne vulgaris. Which of the
following clinical features is commonly associated with this
condition? (3 points)
A. Pruritic papules with a central umbilication
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NR- 507 Advanced Pathophysiology
NR- 507 Final Exam
NR- 507 Adv Pathophysiology - Week 8 Final Exam
Course Title and Number: NR-507 Final Exam
Exam Title: Midterm, Finals, Certification and Assessment
Exam Date: Exam 2025- 2026
Instructor: ____ [Insert Instructor’s Name] _______
Student Name: ___ [Insert Student’s Name] _____
Student ID: ____ [Insert Student ID] _____________
Examination
Time: - ____ Hours: ___ Minutes
Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully.
2. Answer all questions.
3. Use the provided answer sheet to mark your responses.
4. Ensure all answers are final before submitting the exam.
5. Please answer each question below and click Submit when you
have completed the Exam.
6. This test has a time limit, The test will save and submit
automatically when the time expires
7. This is Exam which will assess your knowledge on the course
Learning Resources.
Good Luck……...!
, I can Help BYPASS PROCTORED EXAM 📑
📱Hit Me UP__ Inbox Open 24/7 – 365 …...!!!!
💬 Chat with us here: 📧
Click Here To <<ORDER NOW >> Follow Link
https://yourassignmenthandlers.kit.com/93b2309b47
!!!.ORDER NOW.!!! << TO GET INSTANT EXPERT HELP >> !!!.ORDER
NOW.!!!
NR- 507 Adv Pathophysiology - Week 8 Final Exam Complete
Question 1- 100 April 2025 (Actual Exam Proctored via Exemplify
) With Correct Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+ |
2025- 2026
NR- 507 Adv Pathophysiology - Week 8 Final Exam
NR- 507 Final Exam
NR- 507 Advanced Pathophysiology
Chamberlain University
Read All Instructions Carefully and Answer All the
Questions Correctly Good Luck: -
This Is the Actual NR 507 Advanced
Pathophysiology Week 8 Final Exam Proctored
Using Examplify
If U need Help With this or Other Tests For Chamberlain
or any Other Institutions Fell Free To Contact us Via
The Contacts Above
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This Is The Last Question 100
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NR-507 Adv Pathophysiology - Week 8 Final
Exam Complete Question 1-100
Question 1
Which of the following strategies is commonly recommended
for managing panic disorder? (4 points)
A. Limiting physical activity to prevent panic attacks
B. Avoidance of all stressors
C. Slow, diaphragmatic breathing and relaxation techniques
D. Caffeine consumption to stay alert and distract from panic
thoughts
Correct Answer = C
Rationale >>: Slow, diaphragmatic breathing and relaxation
techniques help to activate the parasympathetic nervous
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system, counteracting the body's fight-or-flight response during
a panic attack.
Question 2
A 74-year-old male is a candidate for dialysis. Which of the
following are the most likely contributing factors, based on
history? (4 points)
A. Hypertension and a GFR = 46 mL/min
B. Hyperlipidemia and a GFR = 60 mL/min
C. Anemia and a GFR = 50 mL/min
D. Type 2 diabetes and a GFR = 27 mL/min
Correct Answer = D
Rationale >>: Type 2 diabetes is a leading cause of end-
stage renal disease. A GFR of 27 mL/min indicates significantly
impaired kidney function, making dialysis necessary.
Question 3
A 35-year-old female presents with the sudden onset of
weakness on the right side of her face. She also reports
increased tearing from the right eye, altered sense of taste on
the anterior two-thirds of her tongue, and difficulty closing her
right eye. The patient is otherwise healthy and denies any other
neurological symptoms. Based on these findings, what is the
most likely diagnosis? (4 points)
A. Bell's palsy
B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Stroke
Correct Answer = A
Rationale >>: Bell's palsy is a sudden, unilateral facial nerve
(cranial nerve VII) paralysis. Symptoms include weakness on
one side of the face, difficulty closing the eye, excessive
tearing, and altered taste sensation on the anterior two-thirds
of the tongue — all of which match this patient's presentation.
Bell's palsy typically occurs in otherwise healthy individuals and
without other focal neurological deficits.
Question 4
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What neurotransmitter imbalance is commonly associated with
the pathophysiology of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? (4
points)
A. Dopamine excess in the limbic system
B. Abnormalities in the norepinephrine and serotonin systems
C. Acetylcholine overactivity in the hippocampus
D. Serotonin deficiency in the frontal cortex
Correct Answer = B
Rationale >>: Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is
commonly associated with dysregulation of both
norepinephrine (NE) and serotonin (5-HT). These
neurotransmitters play key roles in mood regulation, arousal,
and the stress response.
Question 5
A 57-year-old male presents to the primary care clinic with the
following symptoms: weight loss, blood in the stool, and pain on
swallowing. Which of the following do these symptoms
represent? (3 points)
A. Warning signs of GERD
B. Atypical of GERD
C. Typical of GERD
D. Associated symptoms of GERD
Correct Answer = B
Rationale >>: While GERD (Gastroesophageal Reflux
Disease) commonly presents with heartburn and regurgitation,
symptoms like weight loss, blood in the stool, and pain on
swallowing (odynophagia) are not typical and may suggest a
more serious underlying condition requiring further
investigation.
Question 6
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is commonly caused by H. pylori
infection and taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
(NSAIDS). Which of the choices below are considered additional
risk factors for PUD? (3 points)
A. Taking bisphosphonates
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B. All the choices are correct
C. Smoking and alcohol consumption
D. Taking potassium
Rationale >>: Each of the listed factors can contribute to
peptic ulcer disease (PUD): taking bisphosphonates (known to
irritate the GI lining), smoking and alcohol consumption
(impairing mucosal defenses and increasing acid production),
and taking potassium chloride (can be harsh on the GI tract).
Question 7
The NP prescribed an SSRI for the initial treatment of a client
with major depression. On a one-month follow-up visit, the
client reports continued symptoms of depression. Before
making a change in the client's treatment plan, which of the
following is an important consideration regarding the effects of
antidepressant medications? (4 points)
A. It is unusual for the individual to continue to exhibit
symptoms after one month
B. Approximately 50% of depressed individuals may not show a
favorable response during initial treatment to an
antidepressant drug
C. The lack of response to the initial antidepressant after one
month requires a referral to a mental health provider
D. Evidence does not support prescribing another
antidepressant medication
Correct Answer = B
Rationale >>: It is well-documented that a significant
percentage of individuals with depression do not achieve
remission with the first antidepressant prescribed. It typically
takes 4 to 6 weeks or longer for the full therapeutic effect of an
SSRI to be evident.
Question 8
Increasing evidence reveals that pharmacotherapy alone is not
effective in preventing the recurrences of bipolar disorder.
Which strategy below is recommended in the treatment of
bipolar disorder? (3 points)
A. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
B. Psychosocial Interventions
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C. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
D. Individual counseling
Correct Answer = B
Rationale >>: Psychosocial interventions, such as cognitive-
behavioral therapy, family-focused therapy, and interpersonal
and social rhythm therapy, are crucial adjuncts to
pharmacotherapy in managing bipolar disorder and preventing
relapses.
Question 9
Which of the following statements best describes the role of the
hypothalamus in hormone regulation? (4 points)
A. The hypothalamus receives sensory information and
integrates it to regulate hormone secretion from the pituitary
gland
B. The hypothalamus directly produces and releases hormones
into the bloodstream
C. The hypothalamus stores and releases hormones produced
by the adrenal glands
D. The hypothalamus controls the synthesis of insulin in the
pancreas
Correct Answer = A
Rationale >>: The hypothalamus is the primary control
center for the endocrine system. It receives neural signals and
produces releasing and inhibiting hormones that regulate the
anterior and posterior pituitary glands.
Question 10
A 32-year-old client presents with persistent and excessive
worry about various aspects of their life, including work, family,
and health, lasting for at least six months. The client reports
feeling restless, fatigued, and irritable, with muscle tension and
difficulty concentrating. After diagnosing the client with
generalized anxiety disorder, which of the following is a first-
line medication that the NP could prescribe? (4 points)
A. Paroxetine (Paxil)
B. Venlafaxine (Effexor)
C. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
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D. All choices are correct
Correct Answer = D
Rationale >>: Paroxetine (Paxil), Venlafaxine (Effexor), and
Escitalopram (Lexapro) are all established first-line medications
for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD). They belong to the
SSRI and SNRI classes of antidepressants, which have
demonstrated efficacy in treating GAD.
Question 11
What is the term commonly used to describe the first
demyelinating event in multiple sclerosis (MS), often
characterized by neurological symptoms that last for at least 24
hours? (3 points)
A. First exacerbation
B. Primary attack
C. Clinically isolated syndrome
D. Initial flare-up
Correct Answer = C
Rationale >>: Clinically isolated syndrome (CIS) is the term
used to describe the first episode of neurological symptoms
caused by demyelination that lasts at least 24 hours. It is often
the precursor to a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis.
Question 12
A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with a 4-month
history of intermittent abdominal pain that feels like "burning in
the upper part of my stomach." It occurs most often 1 hour
after a meal. These symptoms are consistent with what type of
ulcer? (4 points)
A. Acute gastritis
B. Gastric ulcer
C. Stress ulcer
D. Duodenal ulcer
Correct Answer = B
Rationale >>: Gastric ulcers typically cause burning pain in
the upper abdomen, often 1 hour after eating. The pain is due
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to stomach acid irritating the ulcer and can be worsened by
eating.
Question 13
The pathophysiological alterations that cause appendicitis can
be attributed to: (4 points)
A. Weakening of the muscular layers of the appendix
B. Obstruction of the appendix lumen by fecaliths or foreign
bodies
C. Excessive production of digestive enzymes in the appendix
D. Autoimmune response targeting the appendix tissue
Correct Answer = B
Rationale >>: Appendicitis is most commonly caused by
obstruction of the appendix lumen, often due to fecaliths
(hardened stool) or sometimes by foreign bodies or tumors.
This obstruction leads to increased pressure, reduced blood
flow, and inflammation, which can result in infection.
Question 14
Which of the following is most critical in identifying a seizure
disorder and establishing the cause and onset? (3 points)
A. Health history
B. Blood glucose level measurement
C. Lumbar puncture results
D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) results
Correct Answer = A
Rationale >>: A thorough health history is crucial for
identifying a seizure disorder. It provides essential details about
the patient's symptoms, frequency, triggers, and potential
underlying causes (e.g., prior head injury, family history of
epilepsy).
Question 15
An adolescent presents with acne vulgaris. Which of the
following clinical features is commonly associated with this
condition? (3 points)
A. Pruritic papules with a central umbilication
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