EVOLVE COMPREHENSIVE EXAM (HESI) 1(2025
– 2026)WITH CORRECT QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS 100% GUARANTEED PASS
A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic visit.
Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is at least likely
to exacerbate asthma?
A. Pindolol (Visken).
B. Carteolol (Ocupress).
C. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor).
D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal). - ANSWER-Metoprolol Tartrate( Lopressor)
The best antihypertensive agent for clients with asthma is metoprolol (Lopressor) (C), a
beta2 blocking agent which is also cardioselective and less likely to cause
bronchoconstriction.
-Pindolol (A) is a beta2 blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction and increase
asthmatic symptoms.
,-Although carteolol (B) is a beta blocking agent and an effective antihypertensive agent
used in managing angina, it can increase a client's risk for bronchoconstriction due to its
nonselective beta blocker action.
-Propranolol (D) also blocks the beta2 receptors in the lungs, causing
bronchoconstriction, and is not indicated in clients with asthma and other obstructive
pulmonary disorders.
A male client who has been taking propranolol ( inderal) for 18 months tells the nurse
the healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has
been normal for the past three months. Which instruction should the use provide? -
ANSWER-Ask the health care provider about tapering the drug dose over the next
week.
Although the healthcare provider discontinued the propranolol, measures to prevent
rebound cardiac excitation, such as progressively reducing the dose over one to two
weeks (C), should be recommended to prevent rebound tachycardia, hypertension, and
ventricular dysrhythmias. Abrupt cessation (A and B) of the beta-blocking agent may
precipitate tachycardia and rebound hypertension, so gradual weaning should be
recommended.
A client who is taking clonidine ( Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which
additional assessment should the nurse make? - ANSWER-How long has the client
been taking the medication
,Drowsiness can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine and with continued
use becomes less intense, so the length of time the client has been on the medication
(A) provides information to direct additional instruction. (B, C, and D) are not relevant.
The nurse is preparing to admister atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client who is
scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the nurse to explain th reason for the
prescribed medication. What response is best for the nurse to provide? - ANSWER-
Decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery
Atropine may be prescribed preoperatively to increase the automaticity of the sinoatrial
node and prevent a dangerous reduction in heart rate (B) during surgical anesthesia. (A,
C and D) do not address the therapeutic action of atropine use perioperatively.
An 80 year old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain. Which
concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development
of urniary retention in this geriatric client. ? - ANSWER-Tricyclic antidepressants
Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants (C), can
exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in the older client. Although tricyclic
antidepressants and antihistamines with opioids can exacerbate urinary retention, the
concurrent use of (A and B) with opioids do not. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents
, (D) can increase the risk for bleeding, but do not increase urinary retention with opioids
(D).
The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 prior to
administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter Which
action should the nurse implement? - ANSWER-Admister the dose as prescribed
Verapamil slows sinoatrial (SA) nodal automaticity, delays atrioventricular (AV) nodal
conduction, which slows the ventricular rate, and is used to treat atrial flutter, so (A)
should be implemented, based on the client's heart rate and blood pressure. (B and C)
are not indicated. (D) delays the administration of the scheduled dose.
following an emergency Cesarean delivery the nurse encourages the new mother to
breastfed her newborn . the client asks why she should breastfeed now. Which info
should the nurse provide? - ANSWER-Stimulate contraction of the uterus
When the infant suckles at the breast, oxytocin is released by the posterior pituitary to
stimulates the "letdown" reflex, which causes the release of colostrum, and contracts
the uterus (C) to prevent uterine hemorrhage. (A and B) do not support the client's need
in the immediate period after the emergency delivery. Although maternal-newborn
bonding (D) is facilitated by early breastfeeding, the priority is uterine contraction
stimulation.
– 2026)WITH CORRECT QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS 100% GUARANTEED PASS
A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic visit.
Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is at least likely
to exacerbate asthma?
A. Pindolol (Visken).
B. Carteolol (Ocupress).
C. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor).
D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal). - ANSWER-Metoprolol Tartrate( Lopressor)
The best antihypertensive agent for clients with asthma is metoprolol (Lopressor) (C), a
beta2 blocking agent which is also cardioselective and less likely to cause
bronchoconstriction.
-Pindolol (A) is a beta2 blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction and increase
asthmatic symptoms.
,-Although carteolol (B) is a beta blocking agent and an effective antihypertensive agent
used in managing angina, it can increase a client's risk for bronchoconstriction due to its
nonselective beta blocker action.
-Propranolol (D) also blocks the beta2 receptors in the lungs, causing
bronchoconstriction, and is not indicated in clients with asthma and other obstructive
pulmonary disorders.
A male client who has been taking propranolol ( inderal) for 18 months tells the nurse
the healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has
been normal for the past three months. Which instruction should the use provide? -
ANSWER-Ask the health care provider about tapering the drug dose over the next
week.
Although the healthcare provider discontinued the propranolol, measures to prevent
rebound cardiac excitation, such as progressively reducing the dose over one to two
weeks (C), should be recommended to prevent rebound tachycardia, hypertension, and
ventricular dysrhythmias. Abrupt cessation (A and B) of the beta-blocking agent may
precipitate tachycardia and rebound hypertension, so gradual weaning should be
recommended.
A client who is taking clonidine ( Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which
additional assessment should the nurse make? - ANSWER-How long has the client
been taking the medication
,Drowsiness can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine and with continued
use becomes less intense, so the length of time the client has been on the medication
(A) provides information to direct additional instruction. (B, C, and D) are not relevant.
The nurse is preparing to admister atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client who is
scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the nurse to explain th reason for the
prescribed medication. What response is best for the nurse to provide? - ANSWER-
Decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery
Atropine may be prescribed preoperatively to increase the automaticity of the sinoatrial
node and prevent a dangerous reduction in heart rate (B) during surgical anesthesia. (A,
C and D) do not address the therapeutic action of atropine use perioperatively.
An 80 year old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain. Which
concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development
of urniary retention in this geriatric client. ? - ANSWER-Tricyclic antidepressants
Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants (C), can
exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in the older client. Although tricyclic
antidepressants and antihistamines with opioids can exacerbate urinary retention, the
concurrent use of (A and B) with opioids do not. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents
, (D) can increase the risk for bleeding, but do not increase urinary retention with opioids
(D).
The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 prior to
administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter Which
action should the nurse implement? - ANSWER-Admister the dose as prescribed
Verapamil slows sinoatrial (SA) nodal automaticity, delays atrioventricular (AV) nodal
conduction, which slows the ventricular rate, and is used to treat atrial flutter, so (A)
should be implemented, based on the client's heart rate and blood pressure. (B and C)
are not indicated. (D) delays the administration of the scheduled dose.
following an emergency Cesarean delivery the nurse encourages the new mother to
breastfed her newborn . the client asks why she should breastfeed now. Which info
should the nurse provide? - ANSWER-Stimulate contraction of the uterus
When the infant suckles at the breast, oxytocin is released by the posterior pituitary to
stimulates the "letdown" reflex, which causes the release of colostrum, and contracts
the uterus (C) to prevent uterine hemorrhage. (A and B) do not support the client's need
in the immediate period after the emergency delivery. Although maternal-newborn
bonding (D) is facilitated by early breastfeeding, the priority is uterine contraction
stimulation.
