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Examen

Level 4 Aviation Exam Reported Questions Well Answered.

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thin airfoils - correct answer used on aircrafts designed to fly fast thick airfoils - correct answer used on aircrafts destined to fly slowly camber - correct answer the curvature of an airfoil chord - correct answer the width of a wing conventional airfoils - correct answer thickest at 25% of the chord and can be found in a variety of shapes and designs laminar flow airfoils - correct answer thickest point at 50% of the chord, reduces drag by maintaining the laminar flow of air throughout a greater percentage of the chord aspect ratio - correct answer calculated by dividing the span by the average chord; wing with high ratio generates more lift with less drag than a wing with the same area and a low ratio; high ratio wings are found on gliders angle of incidence - correct answer the angle at which the wing is permanently inclined to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft, affecting flight visibility, takeoff and landing characteristics, and drag in level flight wash out - correct answer decreasing the angle of incidence at the wing tip wash in - correct answer increasing the angle of incidence at the wing tip wing tip vortices - correct answer induced drag can be reduces by limiting the formation of wing tip vortices wing tip design - correct answer lowering wing tip vortices by preventing air from spilling over the wing tip by modifying the wing tips: installing wing tip fuel tanks, using wing tip plates or winglets and drooping the wing tips slats - correct answer auxiliary airfoils that automatically move out in front of the leading edge at high angles of attack are know as slats; moving devices slots - correct answer affect the airflow in the same way as slats, except they are built into the wing; slots can be either full or partial span pitot static system - correct answer instruments connected to the pitot static system work on air pressure pitot pressure - correct answer increase in air pressure caused by the forward motion of the aircraft though the air static pressure - correct answer atmospheric pressure outside the aircraft, not affected by turbulence or motion airspeed indicator (ASI) - correct answer the ASI is connected to both the pitot pressure source and static pressure port and displays the difference between the two pressures as the speed of the aircraft moving through the air (not over the ground) ASI markings - correct answer red: indicates the never-exceed speed; yellow, green and white density error - correct answer ASI is calibrated for sea level pressure of 29.92 inches of mercury at 15 degrees celsius. Temperature and pressure decrease with increase in altitude, decreasing density of air and causing the ASI to read less than true airspeed position error - correct answer results from the position of the pitot pressure sources; eddies formed by air moving over the aircraft and the angle of the pitot source to the airflow cause position error lag error - correct answer result of friction between the parts of instrument; this error is responsible for delay between change in airspeed and the change being shown on the instrument icing error - correct answer caused by ice blockage of pitot pressure; can be prevented by turning on the pitot heat (if equipped) or descending to a lower altitude where the outside air temperature is higher water error - correct answer water in system causes higher or lower than normal readings and may block the system completely; avoided by covering the pitot source when the aircraft is parked indicated airspeed (IAS) - correct answer uncorrected airspeed read from instrument dial calibrated airspeed (CAS) - correct answer indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and installation error equivalent airspeed (EAS) - correct answer calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility factor; significant to aircraft operating above 10,000 feet and 250 knots true airspeed (TAS) - correct answer the calibrated or equivalent airspeeds corrected for density altimeter - correct answer the altimeter is connected only to the static pressure port and measures the pressure of the outside air abnormally high pressure - correct answer cold, dry air masses produce barometric pressures excess of 31.00 inches of Hg (the limit setting scale in most altimeters); the actual altitude will be higher than indicated abnormally cold temperature - correct answer altimeters are calibrated for the standard atmosphere: deviation will cause an error; extremely low temperatures may cause 20 percent error, causing the altimeter to read higher than the actual altitude mountain effect error - correct answer increased wind speed through mountain passes or in mountain waves cause localized area of low pressure; temperatures maybe affected, causing error indicated altitude - correct answer altitude displayed on altimeter when set to current barometric pressure. pressure altitude - correct answer altitude displayed on altimeter when set to standard barometric pressure (29.92 in hg). density altitude - correct answer the pressure altitude corrected for temperature. absolute altitude - correct answer actual height above the Earths surface. vertical speed indicator - correct answer connected to static pressure port; rate of change of static pressure is transmitted to the needle to indicate if the altitude is increasing or decreasing; even though VSI will indicate a climb or descent, it may take several seconds before the correct rate of descent is displayed (lag) gyroscope/precession - correct answer precession is the tendency of a rotating body, when a force is applied perpendicular to its plane of rotation, to turn in the direction of its rotation 90 degrees to its axis and take up a new plane of rotation parallel to the force applied mach indicator - correct answer displays the ratio of its airspeed to the local speed of sound; calculated by dividing airspeed by speed of sound; one means that the aircraft is travelling at the speed of sound; the mach indicator measures and correlates static and dynamic pressures parts of a fuel system - correct answer fuel tanks, a fuel selector valve, fuel lines and filters, a strainer, a fuel quantity gauge, a carburetor and fuel primer pressure feed system - correct answer aircraft with low-wing configurations and large aircraft with a large volume of fuel movement use an engine-driven fuel pump to provide the pressure to keep fuel flowing gravity-feed system - correct answer high-wing, low-powered light aircrafts; the bottom of the fuel tank must be high enough to provide pressure for the fuel to travel past the fuel selector to the carburetor. fuel selector valve - correct answer the fuel selector valve is used by the pilot to select the desired fuel tank to draw fuel; the selector valve may also be used to shut off the flow of fuel from the tanks carburetors - correct answer the heat energy in an internal combustion engine is developed from the burning of a mixture of gasoline and air; the carburetor measures the correct quantity of gasoline, vaporizes fuel, mixes it with air in the required proportion and delivers the mixture to the cylinder when the combustion occurs float carburetor - correct answer forward movement of the throttle opens the throttle valve, which increases the fuel and air mixture, and increases the power being produced by the engine propeller systems - correct answer provides the necessary thrust to pull the airplane through the air; engine power rotates the propeller that generates thrust very similar to the manner in which a wing produces lift. The propeller is a rotating airfoil designed to push air backward as it moves forward along a corkscrew (helical) path. It meets the air at an angle of attack as it rotates, producing thrust (lift) and torque (drag).

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Subido en
14 de abril de 2025
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Aviation Fundamentals- EXAM 1
REVIEW

What are the requirements to become a private pilot? - correct answer You must be
at least 17 years of age, complete specific training and flight time requirements described in the FARs,
pass a knowledge exam, and complete a practical test.



What are the requirements to obtain a third-class medical certificate? - correct answer
Pass a physical exam administered by an FAA-authorized aviation medical examiner.



What are the privileges associated with having a private pilot certificate? - correct answer
Being able to carry passengers and sharing expenses with other pilots



How are aircraft organized for pilot certification? - correct answer Category, class,
and type



What is included in a flight review? - correct answer At least one hour of ground
instruction, one hour of flight instruction, and a log book endorsement



What rating is an essential requirement for most career flying jobs? - correct answer
Multi-engine



Additional pilot certificates that can be added to the private pilot certificate are commercial pilot, airline
transport pilot, and - correct answer certificated flight instructor.



What is the purpose of the FAA? - correct answer To govern commercial and general
aviation



What requirements must you meet before you can acquire a student pilot certificate? - correct answer
You must be at least 16 years of age; able to read, speak, write and understand the English language;
and hold a third-class medical certificate.

,How do variations in atmospheric pressure affect your body when flying? - correct answer
Reduced pressure can cause pain in the ears, sinuses, and abdomen and can cause decompression
sickness after scuba diving.



What are four ways to minimize the effects of motion sickness? - correct answer
Reduce stress and anxiety; schedule flights to avoid turbulent conditions; focus on objects outside the
aircraft; open fresh air vents



How does stress affect pilot performance? - correct answer Releases hormones such
as adrenaline, speeds metabolism, and increases heart rate, respiration, and perspiration



What are the risks of operating an airplane under the influence of alcohol? - correct answer
Impaired judgment and reduced coordination.



After performing a self-assessment, what other steps must you follow before flying while using a drug? -
correct answer Consult with an aviation medical examiner and verify FAA approval of
the drug.



What actions do you need to take to plan for practicing flight maneuvers and procedures? - correct
answer Determine an appropriate altitude and location for practice; determine the
maneuver and procedure steps and appropriate airplane configurations using the pilot's operating
handbook (POH) and your training materials.



What are the steps in the positive exchange of flight controls procedure? - correct answer
. The pilot passing control says, "You have the flight controls," and continues to fly the airplane.2. The
pilot taking control says, "I have the flight controls," and moves the control stick to confirm.3. The pilot
passing control says, "You have the flight controls," releases the flight controls, and visually verifies that
the other pilot has the flight controls.



What are the elements of the passenger briefing that you should perform prior to the flight? - correct
answer How and when to fasten safety belts, air vent location and operation, fire
extinguisher location and operation, egress and emergency operation of doors and windows, traffic and
talking including use of headsets, your questions (passenger questions)

,What elements should you include in a takeoff briefing? - correct answer Wind
direction and velocity, runway length and conditions, takeoff distance, initial heading, initial altitude,
takeoff and climb speeds, departure procedures, emergency plan in case of an engine failure after
takeoff, pilot and co-pilot responsibilities



What are the elements of the before-landing briefing? - correct answer Airport
information and weather conditions, active runway, terrain and obstacles, airport elevation and pattern
altitude, and traffic pattern entry



For what flight operations do you use each type of checklist? - correct answer Use
normal checklists to accomplish procedures required during normal flight operations; use abnormal
checklists to manage situations that might compromise flight safety if not addressed; use emergency
checklists to manage situations that threaten flight safety and must be addressed immediately.



What are the differences between the do-list and flow pattern methods of performing checklist
procedures? - correct answer To perform a do-list, you read the checklist item and
the associated action and then perform the action. Use a do-list when you have time and the completion
of each step in the correct order is critical. A flow pattern guides you through the cockpit in a logical
order as you perform each step without the written checklist. Use a flow pattern when the accurate
sequence of the checklist items is not critical.



What are three equipment operating levels that you can use to help manage avionics workload? -
correct answer Level 1: control the airplane manually and use the minimum
equipment necessary to execute procedures.Level 2: use the autopilot to manage workload, manually
control the airplane at times, and use the flight environment avionics information.Level 3: control the
airplane primarily by the autopilot and use a wide variety of avionics tools, including navigation and
flight planning information.



What are four ways to maintain situational awareness when practicing maneuvers and procedures? -
correct answer Identify and stay within a designated practice area; be aware of the
local weather conditions and wind direction; know your airplane's procedures, limitations, and systems;
use collision avoidance procedures.



What are five actions you can take to avoid a wire strike? - correct answer Obtain
special training; fly at least 1,000 feet above ground level except during takeoff and landing; maintain
the appropriate glide path on final approach; maintain a 2,000-foot horizontal distance from any tower;
be alert for power line notes when obtaining airport information.

, What is aeronautical decision making (ADM)? - correct answer A systematic
approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in
response to a given set of circumstances



What are the characteristics of human factors training? - correct answer Addresses
the fact that the majority of all aviation accidents are human factors related and are the result of a chain
of events triggered by a number of factors; increases aviation safety by optimizing human performance;
focuses on how physiology, emotions, and the interaction between individuals affect human
performance



What five categories of risk factors do you need to consider when making decisions about a flight? -
correct answer Pilot, passengers, plane, programming, and plan



What are the risk factor types in the 5P Pilot category? - correct answer Training,
experience, and fitness



What are the risk factor types in the 5P Passengers category? - correct answer
Experience, flexibility, fitness



What are examples of the risk factor types in the 5P Plane category? - correct answer
Airworthiness of the aircraft systems and equipment; meeting performance criteria based on the flight
conditions; configuration, including proper equipment for the type of flight operation



What are the risk factor types in the 5P Programming category? - correct answer
Avionics airworthiness, avionics operation, and avionics configuration



What are examples of the risk factor types in the 5P Plan category? - correct answer
Airport conditions, including factors such as the availability of airport services; rough terrain and
airspace requirements along your route; mission purpose and contingency plans; forecast and current
weather conditions



What is single-pilot resource management (SRM)? - correct answer The art and
science of managing all the resources, both on board the airplane and from outside sources, that are
available to a single pilot before and during flight to ensure the successful outcome of the flight
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