لجنة الطب البشري
رؤية تنير دروب تميّزكم
Fifth Year - Majors
Obstetrics & Gynecology
(Final Exam Edition)
, Yaqeen’s Batch (5th Year)
1. Anti-D is given to Rh-negative pregnant women within:
A. As soon as possible after delivery.
B. 24 hours after delivery.
C. 48 hours after delivery.
D. 72 hours after delivery.
Answer: A.
2. The gold standard test for Chlamydia diagnosis is:
A. ELISA.
B. NAAT.
C. Culture.
D. Gram stain.
Answer: B.
3. All are considered symptoms of Pelvic organ prolapse (POP), except:
A. Vaginal lump.
B. Backache.
C. Reducable mass after defecation.
D. Urgency.
Answer: A.
4. A woman's LMP was on March 3, 2024, and her cycle is regular every 24 days. Her estimated
due date is:
A. November 29, 2024.
B. December 10, 2024.
C. December 17, 2024.
D. January 7, 2025.
Answer: B.
5. All of the following are considered causes of chronic pelvic pain, except:
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
B. Psychological factors.
C. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).
D. Ectopic pregnancy.
Answer: D.
6. The first-line intervention in the PALM classification of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) is:
A. Hysteroscopy.
B. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
C. Transvaginal and transabdominal ultrasound.
D. Hormonal therapy.
, Answer: C.
7. All of the following about CPD are correct except:
A. Hematuria.
B. Slow progression.
C. Severe moulding & caput formation.
D. The fetal head is well-engaged.
Answer: D.
8. All are true about post-maturity syndrome except:
A. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR).
B. Meconium stained amniotic fluid.
C. Polyhydraminous.
D. Loss of subcutaneous fat.
Answer: C.
9. Which one of the following about Caesarean section (C/S) is correct?
A. Lower Segment Cesarean Section (LSCS) causes more bleeding than classical.
B. Lower Segment Cesarean Section (LSCS) is more difficult to repair.
C. Lower Segment Cesarean Section (LSCS) has a higher risk for uterine rupture than classical.
D. Classical C/S for postmortem deliveries.
Answer: D.
10. Which of the following isn’t a cause of intermenstrual bleeding (IMB)?
A. Thrombocytopenia.
B. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT).
C. Polyps.
D. Endometriosis.
Answer: Most likely A.
11. A woman came with bleeding, maternal vital signs were normal, and Cardiotocography (CTG)
revealed fetal abnormalities, which stage is her placental abruption?
A. Stage 0.
B. Stage 1.
C. Stage 2.
D. Stage 3.
E. Stage 5.
Answer: C.
, 12. What is the risk after 2 C/S for placenta previa?
A. Same risk.
B. More than 2 times.
C. More than 10 times.
D. More than 6 times.
E. More than 4 times.
Answer: E.
13. A woman who is pregnant came due to water leakage, gestational age (GA) is 32 weeks, CTG
revealed no abnormalities, and the mother is otherwise well & shows no symptoms, when do
you plan to induct her labor?
A. Immediately.
B. Week 34.
C. Week 36.
D. Week 37.
E. Week 40.
Answer: D.
14. A term mother came with Prelabor Rupture of Membranes (PROM), what percentage will she
give birth in 24 hours?
A. 10%.
B. 20%.
C. 60%.
D. 95%.
Answer: D.
15. All of the following are considered risk factors for Pelvic organ prolapse (POP) except:
A. Chronic constipation.
B. Heavy lifting.
C. Multiparity.
D. Abdominal wall defects.
Answer: D.
16. A menopausal woman with a CA-125 level of 300 and an ultrasound showing multilocularity
and septations would have a Risk of Malignancy Index (RMI) of:
A. 900.
B. 2700.
C. 3600.
D. 4500.
Answer: B.
رؤية تنير دروب تميّزكم
Fifth Year - Majors
Obstetrics & Gynecology
(Final Exam Edition)
, Yaqeen’s Batch (5th Year)
1. Anti-D is given to Rh-negative pregnant women within:
A. As soon as possible after delivery.
B. 24 hours after delivery.
C. 48 hours after delivery.
D. 72 hours after delivery.
Answer: A.
2. The gold standard test for Chlamydia diagnosis is:
A. ELISA.
B. NAAT.
C. Culture.
D. Gram stain.
Answer: B.
3. All are considered symptoms of Pelvic organ prolapse (POP), except:
A. Vaginal lump.
B. Backache.
C. Reducable mass after defecation.
D. Urgency.
Answer: A.
4. A woman's LMP was on March 3, 2024, and her cycle is regular every 24 days. Her estimated
due date is:
A. November 29, 2024.
B. December 10, 2024.
C. December 17, 2024.
D. January 7, 2025.
Answer: B.
5. All of the following are considered causes of chronic pelvic pain, except:
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
B. Psychological factors.
C. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).
D. Ectopic pregnancy.
Answer: D.
6. The first-line intervention in the PALM classification of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) is:
A. Hysteroscopy.
B. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
C. Transvaginal and transabdominal ultrasound.
D. Hormonal therapy.
, Answer: C.
7. All of the following about CPD are correct except:
A. Hematuria.
B. Slow progression.
C. Severe moulding & caput formation.
D. The fetal head is well-engaged.
Answer: D.
8. All are true about post-maturity syndrome except:
A. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR).
B. Meconium stained amniotic fluid.
C. Polyhydraminous.
D. Loss of subcutaneous fat.
Answer: C.
9. Which one of the following about Caesarean section (C/S) is correct?
A. Lower Segment Cesarean Section (LSCS) causes more bleeding than classical.
B. Lower Segment Cesarean Section (LSCS) is more difficult to repair.
C. Lower Segment Cesarean Section (LSCS) has a higher risk for uterine rupture than classical.
D. Classical C/S for postmortem deliveries.
Answer: D.
10. Which of the following isn’t a cause of intermenstrual bleeding (IMB)?
A. Thrombocytopenia.
B. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT).
C. Polyps.
D. Endometriosis.
Answer: Most likely A.
11. A woman came with bleeding, maternal vital signs were normal, and Cardiotocography (CTG)
revealed fetal abnormalities, which stage is her placental abruption?
A. Stage 0.
B. Stage 1.
C. Stage 2.
D. Stage 3.
E. Stage 5.
Answer: C.
, 12. What is the risk after 2 C/S for placenta previa?
A. Same risk.
B. More than 2 times.
C. More than 10 times.
D. More than 6 times.
E. More than 4 times.
Answer: E.
13. A woman who is pregnant came due to water leakage, gestational age (GA) is 32 weeks, CTG
revealed no abnormalities, and the mother is otherwise well & shows no symptoms, when do
you plan to induct her labor?
A. Immediately.
B. Week 34.
C. Week 36.
D. Week 37.
E. Week 40.
Answer: D.
14. A term mother came with Prelabor Rupture of Membranes (PROM), what percentage will she
give birth in 24 hours?
A. 10%.
B. 20%.
C. 60%.
D. 95%.
Answer: D.
15. All of the following are considered risk factors for Pelvic organ prolapse (POP) except:
A. Chronic constipation.
B. Heavy lifting.
C. Multiparity.
D. Abdominal wall defects.
Answer: D.
16. A menopausal woman with a CA-125 level of 300 and an ultrasound showing multilocularity
and septations would have a Risk of Malignancy Index (RMI) of:
A. 900.
B. 2700.
C. 3600.
D. 4500.
Answer: B.
