FND 430 FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE
The purpose of nutritional screening is to - ANSWER Identify patients at nutritional risk
Which of the following is NOT true of nutrition screening?
Should be setting specific
Correct Answer Should be done by dietitians
Should include weight history
Should be able to be done quickly - ANSWER Should be done by dietitians
In the patient's _____ history, you would most likely find out about the patient's cultural
views related to health care. - ANSWER social
What is a limitation of using the 24-hour recall and the food frequency? - ANSWER
Reliance on the patient's memory
The Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool (MUST) relies on what factors for the
determination of nutritional risk in adults? - ANSWER Body mass index, weight loss,
acute disease effect on intake
What does indirect calorimetry measure? - ANSWER Oxygen consumption and carbon
dioxide excretion
How does an elevation in body temperature with fever affect the metabolic rate? -
ANSWER Fever causes an increase in body temperature. For every degree Fahrenheit
above the normal 98.6° F, the BMR increases by 7%.
What is the clinical method used for measuring human energy expenditure? - ANSWER
Indirect calorimetry
Which of the following does NOT increase the thermic effect of food (TEF)? - ANSWER
Fat
A respiratory quotient of 0.64 would most likely occur in which of these patients? -
ANSWER A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis
Which of these best describes the change in the metabolic rate during pregnancy? -
ANSWER It increases as a result of fetal growth and maternal cardiac output.
Which of the following conditions is necessary to obtain an accurate measure of a
patient's basal metabolic rate (BMR)? - ANSWER Test in the morning after the patient
has awakened.
The respiratory quotient (RQ) is highest after consumption of a diet that is primarily
,composed of what? - ANSWER Carbohydrate
Which of the following best describes the contribution of physical activity to total energy
expenditure? - ANSWER It is the most variable component of total energy expenditure.
When is basal metabolism at its highest rate? - ANSWER During periods of rapid growth
Which of the following would be included in a complete blood count? - ANSWER Mean
cell volume
Which of the following is NOT associated with a decrease in prealbumin levels? -
ANSWER Malnutrition
Which laboratory value would be added in a comprehensive metabolic panel (compared
with a BMP)? - ANSWER Albumin
Which indicator of protein status has the longest half-life? - ANSWER Albumin
Which of the following deficiencies could cause macrocytic anemia? - ANSWER Vitamin
B12
During trauma, what happens to negative acute-phase respondent levels? - ANSWER
Blood levels decrease because of decreased synthesis.
Which of the following is a positive acute-phase respondent? - ANSWER C-reactive
protein
The best way to estimate a healthy person's energy needs is: - ANSWER Use the
Mifflin-St Jeor equation
Which of the following is a measure of iron storage? - ANSWER Serum ferritin
BMIs of _______ are associated with increased risk of mortality in those 65 and older. -
ANSWER less than 23
Which of the following is a measure of glucose control? - ANSWER Hemoglobin A1C
Which of the following is a measure of somatic protein status? - ANSWER Urinary
creatinine
Which of the following is NOT a laboratory measure of hydration status? - ANSWER
Serum glucose
Which of the following occurs during acute illness or trauma? - ANSWER Negative
acute-phase respondents decrease.
In urinalysis tests, which of the following is expected to appear at some level in normal
,people? - ANSWER Protein
Laboratory tests for nutrients - ANSWER may indicate deficiency before clinical or
anthropometric data does.
Antacids, H2-receptor antagonists, and proton pump inhibitors affect the absorption of
calcium, iron, and magnesium through - ANSWER decreased bioavailability caused by
change in gastrointestinal pH.
Which of the following is an appropriate procedure for administering oral medications
through a feeding tube? - ANSWER Stop the feeding and irrigate the tube with water
before and after administering the medication.
A patient is being treated for depression with a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. Which of
the following should the patient be instructed to avoid while taking this medication? -
ANSWER Cheese, salami, and Chianti wine
Decreased serum albumin levels, which are seen in many conditions, including
malnutrition and liver disease, affect medications by - ANSWER leading to increased
serum levels of free fraction of a drug.
An excipient is a(n) - ANSWER inactive ingredient.
The cancer chemotherapeutic agent methotrexate acts as an antagonist to - ANSWER
folate.
Hypertensive patients who are taking loop diuretics for reduction of blood pressure may
experience hypokalemia. Which other electrolyte does NOT need to be monitored for a
potential secondary nutrient deficiency? - ANSWER Phosphorus
Pseudomembranous colitis is a serious side effect of antibiotic therapy - ANSWER that
is caused by Clostridium difficile infection.
, A patient is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). What MNT education should this patient
receive? - ANSWER Maintain consistent vitamin K intake.
Patients receiving the antibiotic tetracycline should be taught to avoid taking it with
what? - ANSWER Milk
Which term describes the metabolism of drugs by reactions such as oxidation,
reduction, hydrolysis, or conjugation? - ANSWER Biotransformation
Which term is used to describe the movement of a drug through the body by absorption,
distribution, metabolism, and excretion? - ANSWER Pharmacokinetics
The gastrointestinal side effect commonly seen when narcotic drugs such as codeine
and morphine are administered is - ANSWER constipation.
When the sedative propofol (Diprivan) is administered to a patient, what nutritional
consequence must be considered? - ANSWER It can provide 1.1 kcal/ml of lipid.
Total energy expenditure is comprised of what 3 components? Briefly describe what
effects each of these components. - ANSWER 1. BMR- BMR can be higher or lower
based on age, body composition, gender, hormonal status, etc. and it affects the rate at
which an individual burns energy.
2. Thermal effect of food- spicy foods, fats, and frequency of food consumption can
increase/decrease the rate at which the energy is burned.
3. Activity thermogenesis- this is based on an individual's level of physical activity and
has the greatest variation out of all three components. Physically active individuals burn
more energy than sedentary.
The Nutrition Focus Physical Exam (NFPE) includes observations and assessments to
The purpose of nutritional screening is to - ANSWER Identify patients at nutritional risk
Which of the following is NOT true of nutrition screening?
Should be setting specific
Correct Answer Should be done by dietitians
Should include weight history
Should be able to be done quickly - ANSWER Should be done by dietitians
In the patient's _____ history, you would most likely find out about the patient's cultural
views related to health care. - ANSWER social
What is a limitation of using the 24-hour recall and the food frequency? - ANSWER
Reliance on the patient's memory
The Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool (MUST) relies on what factors for the
determination of nutritional risk in adults? - ANSWER Body mass index, weight loss,
acute disease effect on intake
What does indirect calorimetry measure? - ANSWER Oxygen consumption and carbon
dioxide excretion
How does an elevation in body temperature with fever affect the metabolic rate? -
ANSWER Fever causes an increase in body temperature. For every degree Fahrenheit
above the normal 98.6° F, the BMR increases by 7%.
What is the clinical method used for measuring human energy expenditure? - ANSWER
Indirect calorimetry
Which of the following does NOT increase the thermic effect of food (TEF)? - ANSWER
Fat
A respiratory quotient of 0.64 would most likely occur in which of these patients? -
ANSWER A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis
Which of these best describes the change in the metabolic rate during pregnancy? -
ANSWER It increases as a result of fetal growth and maternal cardiac output.
Which of the following conditions is necessary to obtain an accurate measure of a
patient's basal metabolic rate (BMR)? - ANSWER Test in the morning after the patient
has awakened.
The respiratory quotient (RQ) is highest after consumption of a diet that is primarily
,composed of what? - ANSWER Carbohydrate
Which of the following best describes the contribution of physical activity to total energy
expenditure? - ANSWER It is the most variable component of total energy expenditure.
When is basal metabolism at its highest rate? - ANSWER During periods of rapid growth
Which of the following would be included in a complete blood count? - ANSWER Mean
cell volume
Which of the following is NOT associated with a decrease in prealbumin levels? -
ANSWER Malnutrition
Which laboratory value would be added in a comprehensive metabolic panel (compared
with a BMP)? - ANSWER Albumin
Which indicator of protein status has the longest half-life? - ANSWER Albumin
Which of the following deficiencies could cause macrocytic anemia? - ANSWER Vitamin
B12
During trauma, what happens to negative acute-phase respondent levels? - ANSWER
Blood levels decrease because of decreased synthesis.
Which of the following is a positive acute-phase respondent? - ANSWER C-reactive
protein
The best way to estimate a healthy person's energy needs is: - ANSWER Use the
Mifflin-St Jeor equation
Which of the following is a measure of iron storage? - ANSWER Serum ferritin
BMIs of _______ are associated with increased risk of mortality in those 65 and older. -
ANSWER less than 23
Which of the following is a measure of glucose control? - ANSWER Hemoglobin A1C
Which of the following is a measure of somatic protein status? - ANSWER Urinary
creatinine
Which of the following is NOT a laboratory measure of hydration status? - ANSWER
Serum glucose
Which of the following occurs during acute illness or trauma? - ANSWER Negative
acute-phase respondents decrease.
In urinalysis tests, which of the following is expected to appear at some level in normal
,people? - ANSWER Protein
Laboratory tests for nutrients - ANSWER may indicate deficiency before clinical or
anthropometric data does.
Antacids, H2-receptor antagonists, and proton pump inhibitors affect the absorption of
calcium, iron, and magnesium through - ANSWER decreased bioavailability caused by
change in gastrointestinal pH.
Which of the following is an appropriate procedure for administering oral medications
through a feeding tube? - ANSWER Stop the feeding and irrigate the tube with water
before and after administering the medication.
A patient is being treated for depression with a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. Which of
the following should the patient be instructed to avoid while taking this medication? -
ANSWER Cheese, salami, and Chianti wine
Decreased serum albumin levels, which are seen in many conditions, including
malnutrition and liver disease, affect medications by - ANSWER leading to increased
serum levels of free fraction of a drug.
An excipient is a(n) - ANSWER inactive ingredient.
The cancer chemotherapeutic agent methotrexate acts as an antagonist to - ANSWER
folate.
Hypertensive patients who are taking loop diuretics for reduction of blood pressure may
experience hypokalemia. Which other electrolyte does NOT need to be monitored for a
potential secondary nutrient deficiency? - ANSWER Phosphorus
Pseudomembranous colitis is a serious side effect of antibiotic therapy - ANSWER that
is caused by Clostridium difficile infection.
, A patient is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). What MNT education should this patient
receive? - ANSWER Maintain consistent vitamin K intake.
Patients receiving the antibiotic tetracycline should be taught to avoid taking it with
what? - ANSWER Milk
Which term describes the metabolism of drugs by reactions such as oxidation,
reduction, hydrolysis, or conjugation? - ANSWER Biotransformation
Which term is used to describe the movement of a drug through the body by absorption,
distribution, metabolism, and excretion? - ANSWER Pharmacokinetics
The gastrointestinal side effect commonly seen when narcotic drugs such as codeine
and morphine are administered is - ANSWER constipation.
When the sedative propofol (Diprivan) is administered to a patient, what nutritional
consequence must be considered? - ANSWER It can provide 1.1 kcal/ml of lipid.
Total energy expenditure is comprised of what 3 components? Briefly describe what
effects each of these components. - ANSWER 1. BMR- BMR can be higher or lower
based on age, body composition, gender, hormonal status, etc. and it affects the rate at
which an individual burns energy.
2. Thermal effect of food- spicy foods, fats, and frequency of food consumption can
increase/decrease the rate at which the energy is burned.
3. Activity thermogenesis- this is based on an individual's level of physical activity and
has the greatest variation out of all three components. Physically active individuals burn
more energy than sedentary.
The Nutrition Focus Physical Exam (NFPE) includes observations and assessments to
