ARRT MRI exam study guide
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_70qxee
1. If a brain exam is being performed and the request is made to rule out
acoustic neuroma, a protocol with thin cuts through the _________ should be
performed.: Inner auditory canals
2. The _____________ imaging plane would be the most optimal slice orien-
tation for evaluation of Arnold Chiari Malformation and its inferior cerebellar
tonsillar herniation.: sagittal
3. A FLAIR sequence with a long TI is utilized to:: null the signal from CSF
4. If a brain exam is being perfomed and the request is made to rule out
microadenoma due to elevated prolactin levels, a protocol with thin cuts
through the ____________ should be performed.: pituitary gland
5. If a brain exam is being perfomed and the request is made to rule out globe
tumor due to symptoms of diplopia, a protocol with thin cuts through the
____________ should be performed: orbits/ optic nerves
6. MR findings of a low volume corpus callosum and increased white matter
lesions can be indicative of a diagnosis of:: multiple sclerosis
7. If a brain exam is being performed and the request is made to evaluate
cranial nerves VII and VIII due to the patient's symptoms of tinnitus, a protocol
with thin cuts through the ____________ should be performed.: Inner Auditory
Canal
8. How many cranial nerves are there?: 12 pairs
9. To best visualize the pituitary gland in MRI, high resolution T1 weighted
images in the __________ planes pre and post contrast are optimal.: sagittal
and coronal
10. ____________ is a condition in which part of the cerebellar tonsil is dis-
placed through the foramen magnum.: chiari malformation
11. When imaging a hemorrhagic infarct in the brain, which pulse sequence
would demonstrate the magnetic susceptibility effects better?: gradient echo
12. _______ sequences are performed to suppress CSF (cerebro-spinal flu-
id)and aid in the detection of demyelination.: FLAIR
13. The brainstem includes what?: midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
14. On a T2 weighted image, CSF appears bright because it has a __________
relaxation time.: long T2
15. Which area(s) of the brain is/are typically affected in patients with a history
of epilepsy?: frontal lobe and/or temporal lobe
16. The right and left optic nerve join at the:: Optic chiasm
17. The medial and lateral rectus muscles are located in the:: Eyes
18. What scan plane would be optimal for visualization of the hippocampus?-
: Coronal oblique
1/9
, ARRT MRI exam study guide
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_70qxee
19. Which dural venous sinuses drain from the confluence of sinuses (by the
internal occipital protuberance) to the mastoid portion of the temporal?: Trans-
verse sinuses
20. The stalk of the pituitary gland is also known as the: Infundibulum
21. Which structure lies adjacent to the head of the caudate nucleus?: Anterior
horn of the lateral ventricle
22. In the TMJ's, the articular disc lies between what two anatomical struc-
tures?: Mandibular fossa and mandibular condyle
23. The insular cortex is primarily responsible for:: Motor control; cognitive
function
24. Which cranial nerve is responsible for Bell's Palsy?: Cranial nerve VII (the
facial nerve)
25. To accurately depict the VII and VIII cranial nerves, the patient would
centered at the level of the:: External auditory meatus
26. The dural venous sinuses that drain into the internal jugular vein are
the:: Sigmoid sinus
27. When positioning a patient for a brain MRI, the centering should be placed
at what anatomical landmark?: Nasion
28. If the third ventricle is dilated, but the fourth ventricle is not, there would
then be pathology associated with:: Aqueduct of Sylvius
29. A depression in the base of the skull where the pituitary gland is located
is called the ___________.: Sella turcica
30. Which fissure divides the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal
lobes?: sylvan fissure
31. The __________________ runs the length of the falx cerebri.: Superior
sagittal sinus
32. How do the vertebral arteries enter the cranium?: foramen magnum
33. What would be the most useful sequence for evaluation of an acute
stroke?: diffusion weighted
34. When performing an MRI to confirm a suspected pituitary microadenoma,
contrast is injected and imaging is performed:: Rapidly
35. Lesions appear as _____________________ compared to the enhanced
pituitary gland in contrast MR imaging: low signal intensity
36. When performing MRI to rule out brain tumors, the weighted images ac-
quired to evaluate the extent of lesion involvement, after injection of gadolin-
ium, are:: T1 weighted
37. Identify the optic nerve (Cranial nerve II)- left side:
2/9
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_70qxee
1. If a brain exam is being performed and the request is made to rule out
acoustic neuroma, a protocol with thin cuts through the _________ should be
performed.: Inner auditory canals
2. The _____________ imaging plane would be the most optimal slice orien-
tation for evaluation of Arnold Chiari Malformation and its inferior cerebellar
tonsillar herniation.: sagittal
3. A FLAIR sequence with a long TI is utilized to:: null the signal from CSF
4. If a brain exam is being perfomed and the request is made to rule out
microadenoma due to elevated prolactin levels, a protocol with thin cuts
through the ____________ should be performed.: pituitary gland
5. If a brain exam is being perfomed and the request is made to rule out globe
tumor due to symptoms of diplopia, a protocol with thin cuts through the
____________ should be performed: orbits/ optic nerves
6. MR findings of a low volume corpus callosum and increased white matter
lesions can be indicative of a diagnosis of:: multiple sclerosis
7. If a brain exam is being performed and the request is made to evaluate
cranial nerves VII and VIII due to the patient's symptoms of tinnitus, a protocol
with thin cuts through the ____________ should be performed.: Inner Auditory
Canal
8. How many cranial nerves are there?: 12 pairs
9. To best visualize the pituitary gland in MRI, high resolution T1 weighted
images in the __________ planes pre and post contrast are optimal.: sagittal
and coronal
10. ____________ is a condition in which part of the cerebellar tonsil is dis-
placed through the foramen magnum.: chiari malformation
11. When imaging a hemorrhagic infarct in the brain, which pulse sequence
would demonstrate the magnetic susceptibility effects better?: gradient echo
12. _______ sequences are performed to suppress CSF (cerebro-spinal flu-
id)and aid in the detection of demyelination.: FLAIR
13. The brainstem includes what?: midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
14. On a T2 weighted image, CSF appears bright because it has a __________
relaxation time.: long T2
15. Which area(s) of the brain is/are typically affected in patients with a history
of epilepsy?: frontal lobe and/or temporal lobe
16. The right and left optic nerve join at the:: Optic chiasm
17. The medial and lateral rectus muscles are located in the:: Eyes
18. What scan plane would be optimal for visualization of the hippocampus?-
: Coronal oblique
1/9
, ARRT MRI exam study guide
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_70qxee
19. Which dural venous sinuses drain from the confluence of sinuses (by the
internal occipital protuberance) to the mastoid portion of the temporal?: Trans-
verse sinuses
20. The stalk of the pituitary gland is also known as the: Infundibulum
21. Which structure lies adjacent to the head of the caudate nucleus?: Anterior
horn of the lateral ventricle
22. In the TMJ's, the articular disc lies between what two anatomical struc-
tures?: Mandibular fossa and mandibular condyle
23. The insular cortex is primarily responsible for:: Motor control; cognitive
function
24. Which cranial nerve is responsible for Bell's Palsy?: Cranial nerve VII (the
facial nerve)
25. To accurately depict the VII and VIII cranial nerves, the patient would
centered at the level of the:: External auditory meatus
26. The dural venous sinuses that drain into the internal jugular vein are
the:: Sigmoid sinus
27. When positioning a patient for a brain MRI, the centering should be placed
at what anatomical landmark?: Nasion
28. If the third ventricle is dilated, but the fourth ventricle is not, there would
then be pathology associated with:: Aqueduct of Sylvius
29. A depression in the base of the skull where the pituitary gland is located
is called the ___________.: Sella turcica
30. Which fissure divides the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal
lobes?: sylvan fissure
31. The __________________ runs the length of the falx cerebri.: Superior
sagittal sinus
32. How do the vertebral arteries enter the cranium?: foramen magnum
33. What would be the most useful sequence for evaluation of an acute
stroke?: diffusion weighted
34. When performing an MRI to confirm a suspected pituitary microadenoma,
contrast is injected and imaging is performed:: Rapidly
35. Lesions appear as _____________________ compared to the enhanced
pituitary gland in contrast MR imaging: low signal intensity
36. When performing MRI to rule out brain tumors, the weighted images ac-
quired to evaluate the extent of lesion involvement, after injection of gadolin-
ium, are:: T1 weighted
37. Identify the optic nerve (Cranial nerve II)- left side:
2/9
