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Examen

BIOS 252 Final Exam Practice test Questions and Complete Solutions Graded A+

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Subido en
27-03-2025
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2024/2025

BIOS 252 Final Exam Practice test Questions and Complete Solutions Graded A+ Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle? 1) A) guard body entrances and exits B) maintain posture C) maintain body temperature D) produce movement E) all of the above - Answer: E Nerves and blood vessels that service the muscle fibers are located in the connective tissues of the A) myofibrils. B) sarcolemma. C) endomysium. D) sarcomere. E) perimysium. - Answer: E Which of the following best describes the term sarcoplasmic reticulum? A) largely made of myosin molecules B) storage and release site for calcium ions C) thin filaments are anchored here D) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle E) repeating unit of striated myofibrils - Answer: B Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for A) the conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber. B) muscle fatigue. C) the striped appearance of skeletal muscle. D) muscle contraction. E) muscle relaxation. - Answer: D The region of the sarcomere that always contains thin filaments is the A) Z line. B) A band. C) H band. D) M line. E) I band. - Answer: E At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by A) calcium ions. B) troponin molecules. C) tropomyosin molecules. D) myosin molecules. E) ATP molecules. - Answer: C Cross-bridges are portions of A) actin molecules. B) myosin molecules. C) tropomyosin molecules. D) troponin molecules. E) calcium ions. - Answer: B When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, A) the zones of overlap get larger. B) the H bands and I bands get smaller. C) the Z lines get closer together. D) the width of the A band remains constant. E) all of the above - Answer: E The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction. 1. Myosin cross-bridges bind to the actin. 2. The free myosin head splits ATP. 3. Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 4. The myosin head pivots toward the center of the sarcomere. 5. Calcium ion binds to troponin. 6. The myosin head binds an ATP molecule and detaches from the actin. The correct sequence of these events is A) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6. B) 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5. C) 1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2. D) 5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 3. E) 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2. - Answer: E Active sites on the actin become available for binding after A) troponin binds to tropomyosin. B) calcium binds to tropomyosin. C) myosin binds to troponin. D) calcium binds to troponin. E) actin binds to troponin. - Answer: D In an isotonic contraction, A) muscle tension exceeds the load and the muscle lifts the load. B) many twitches fuse into one. C) tension rises and falls but the muscle length is constant. D) flexion is produced. E) the peak tension is less than the load. - Answer: A During anaerobic glycolysis A) oxygen is not consumed. B) pyruvic acid is produced. C) ATP is produced. D) all of the above E) B and C only - Answer: D The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber. A) intermediate B) fast C) high-density D) anaerobic E) slow - Answer: E Shortening a muscle while it maintains constant tension is called ________. A) complete tetanus B) an isometric contraction C) an isotonic contraction D) incomplete tetanus E) an isokinetic contraction - Answer: C Which of the following is not a characteristic of a muscle cell? A) Conductivity B) Excitability C) Contractility D) Plasticity E) Extensibility - Answer: D The most common lever systems in the body are those that have the applied force between the fulcrum and the load. These are called ________ levers. A) fourth-class B) second-class C) fifth-class D) third-class E) first-class - Answer: D Contracting the gastrocnemius muscles to elevate the body on the toes involves a ________ lever. A) fourth-class B) third-class C) first-class D) second-class E) both B and C - Answer: D A muscle that inserts on the body of the mandible is probably involved in A) chewing. B) blowing. C) spitting. D) kissing. E) frowning - Answer: A A muscle that assists the muscle that is primarily responsible for a given action is a(n) A) antagonist. B) originator. C) levator. D) agonist. E) synergist. - Answer: E A(n) ________ is a muscle whose contraction is chiefly responsible for producing a particular movement. A) prime mover B) agonist C) antagonist D) all of the above E) A or B only - Answer: E Which of the following is not an extrinsic eye muscle? A) superior oblique B) medial rectus C) lateral rectus D) inferior rectus E) rectus abdominis - Answer: E A muscle that adducts the humerus is the A) coracobrachialis. B) trapezius. C) deltoid. D) latissimus dorsi. E) both A and D - Answer: E All of the following are innervated by the facial nerve (N VII), except for the ________ muscle. A) mentalis B) levator palpebrae C) orbicularis oculi D) risorius E) auricularis - Answer: B Identify the labeled muscle A) deltoid B) trapezius C) sternocleidomastoid D) temporalis E) pectoralis major - Answer: B Identify the muscle A) deltoid B) brachialis C) biceps brachii D) triceps brachii E) pronator teres - Answer: B Identify the muscle A) vastus lateralis B) rectus anterior C) tibialis anterior D) serratus anterior E) soleus - Answer: C Identify the muscle A) trapezius B) latissimus dorsi C) tensor fasciae latae D) adductor magnus E) rhomboid major - Answer: B Identify the muscle A) teres major B) sternocleidomastoid C) anconeus D) deltoid E) trapezius - Answer: D Identify the muscle A) semitendinosus B) gracilis C) gluteus medius D) adductor magnus E) biceps femoris - Answer: E The ________ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord. A) peripheral B) central C) autonomic D) efferent E) afferent - Answer: B The ________ nervous system controls the skeletal muscles. A) autonomic B) somatic C) parasympathetic D) sympathetic E) afferent - Answer: B The part of the peripheral nervous system that carries sensory information to the CNS is designated A) efferent. B) motor. C) somatic. D) afferent. E) autonomic. - Answer: D The axon is connected to the soma at the A) collaterals. B) telodendria. C) synapse. D) synaptic knobs. E) axon hillock. - Answer: E ________ are the most numerous type of neuron in the CNS. A) Sensory neurons B) Interneurons C) Motor neurons D) Unipolar neurons E) Bipolar neurons - Answer: B The structure labeled is a A) Nissl body. B) soma. C) perikaryon. D) initial segment. E) dendrite. - Answer: B Which type of membrane channels are found in the axon? A) voltage-gated Na+ channels B) voltage-gated K+ channels C) voltage-gated Ca2+ channels D) chemically gated Na+ and K+ channels E) both A and B - Answer: E Identify the structure labeled A) axons B) axosomata C) dendritic spines D) synaptic terminals E) telodendria - Answer: D Which of the following is not a function of the neuroglia? A) secretion of cerebrospinal fluid B) phagocytosis C) memory D) maintenance of blood-brain barrier E) support - Answer: C The largest and most numerous of the glial cells in the central nervous system are the A) microglia. B) ependymal cells. C) astrocytes. D) oligodendrocytes. E) satellite cells. - Answer: C The myelin sheath that covers many CNS axons is formed by A) satellite cells. B) oligodendrocytes. C) microglia. D) ependymal cells. E) astrocytes. - Answer: B ________ line the brain ventricles and spinal canal. A) Satellite cells B) Microglia C) Astrocytes D) Ependymal cells E) Oligodendrocytes - Answer: D ________ open or close in response to binding specific molecules. A) Leak channels B) Chemically gated channels C) Activated channels D) Voltage-gated channels E) both C and D - Answer: B Which of the following is not involved in creating the resting potential of a neuron? A) membrane permeability for potassium ions greater than sodium ions B) diffusion of sodium ions into the cell C) The interior of the plasma membrane has an excess of negative charges. D) membrane permeability for sodium ions greater than potassium ions E) diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell - Answer: D If the permeability of a resting axon to sodium ion increases, A) the membrane potential will depolarize. B) the membrane potential will hyperpolarize. C) inward movement of sodium ion will increase. D) outward movement of sodium ion will decrease. E) both A and C - Answer: E The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potential. 1. Sodium channels are inactivated. 2. Voltage-gated potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell, initiating repolarization. 3. Sodium channels regain their normal properties. 4. A graded depolarization brings an area of an excitable membrane to threshold. 5. A temporary hyperpolarization occurs. 6. Sodium channel activation occurs. 7. Sodium ions enter the cell and depolarization occurs. The proper sequence of these events is A) 4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5. B) 6, 7, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5. C) 4, 6, 7, 3, 2, 5, 1. D) 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 3, 5. E) 4, 2, 5, 6, 7, 3, 1. - Answer: A Which of the following is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain? A) noradrenaline B) glutamate C) glycine D) gamma aminobutyric acid E) serotonin - Answer: B EPSPs (excitatory postsynaptic potentials) occur when A) more calcium ions than usual leak out of a cell. B) chloride ions enter a cell. C) hyperpolarizations occur. D) more potassium ions than usual leak out of a cell. E) extra sodium ions enter a cell. - Answer: E IPSPs (inhibitory postsynaptic potentials) A) are local depolarizations. B) increase membrane permeability to sodium ions. C) block the efflux of potassium ions. D) are local hyperpolarizations. E) block the efflux of calcium ions. - Answer: D Enlargements of the spinal cord occur A) in the sacral region. B) near the posterior median sulcus. C) in the thoracic region. D) adjacent to the anterior median fissure. E) in those spinal segments that control the limbs. - Answer: E ________ channels open or close in response to physical distortion of the membrane surface. A) Chemically gated B) Leak C) Active D) Voltage-gated E) Mechanically gated - Answer: E Sensory neurons of the PNS are A) unipolar. B) multipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) anaxonic. - Answer: A The site of intercellular communication between neurons is the A) hillock. B) collateral. C) telodendria. D) synapse. E) synaptic knob - Answer: D The specialized membranes that surround the spinal cord are termed the A) cranial mater. B) cranial meninges. C) spinal meninges. D) epidural membranes. E) spinal mater. - Answer: C Blood vessels that supply the spinal cord run along the surface of the A) epidural space. B) pia mater. C) subdural space. D) subarachnoid space. E) dura mater. - Answer: B The dorsal root of a spinal nerve contains A) axons of sensory neurons. B) axons of motor neurons. C) interneurons. D) cell bodies of sensory neurons. E) cell bodies of motor neurons. - Answer: A The ventral root of a spinal nerve contains A) cell bodies of motor neurons. B) axons of motor neurons. C) interneurons. D) cell bodies of sensory neurons. E) axons of sensory neurons. - Answer: B The tough, fibrous, outermost covering of the spinal cord is the A) periosteum. B) arachnoid. C) epidural block. D) dura mater. E) pia mater. - Answer: D Cerebrospinal fluid flows within the A) dura mater. B) filum terminale. C) arachnoid mater. D) subarachnoid space. E) pia mater. - Answer: D The posterior horns of the spinal cord contain mainly A) sympathetic nuclei. B) sensory nuclei. C) autonomic motor nuclei. D) nerve tracts. E) somatic motor nuclei. - Answer: B The gray horns of the spinal cord contain mainly A) funiculi. B) meninges. C) columns. D) nerve tracts. E) nerve cell bodies. - Answer: E The white matter of the spinal cord is mainly A) neuroglia. B) nodes of Ranvier. C) unmyelinated axons. D) Schwann cells. E) myelinated axons. - Answer: E The white matter of the spinal cord contains A) sensory and motor nuclei. B) interneurons. C) bundles of axons with common origins, destinations, and functions. D) both axons and dendrites. E) bundles of dendrites with common origins, destinations, and functions. - Answer: C Bill contracts a viral disease that destroys cells in the posterior gray horns in his spinal cord. As a result, which of the following would you expect? A) inability to breathe B) problems with moving his arms C) problems with moving his legs D) uncontrollable sweating of his feet E) loss of sensation in his torso - Answer: E Muscles of the neck and shoulder are innervated by spinal nerves from the ________ region. A) lumbar B) thoracic C) coccygeal D) cervical E) sacral - Answer: D Spinal nerves from the sacral region of the cord innervate the ________ muscles. A) leg B) intercostal C) facial D) shoulder E) abdominal - Answer: A All of the following are true of neural reflexes, except that they A) involve at least two neurons. B) help preserve homeostasis. C) are the simplest form of behavior. D) are automatic motor responses. E) cannot be modified by the brain. - Answer: E The stretch reflex A) is an example of a polysynaptic reflex. B) is important in regulating muscle length. C) involves a receptor called the Golgi tendon organ. D) is activated when a skeletal muscle lengthens. E) both B and D - Answer: E The reflex that prevents a muscle from exerting too much tension is the ________ reflex. A) stretch B) reciprocal C) tendon D) flexor E) crossed extensor - Answer: C The flexor reflex A) prevents a muscle from overstretching. B) is an example of a monosynaptic reflex. C) prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension. D) moves a limb away from a painful stimulus. E) usually depends on cranial neurons. - Answer: D The floor of the diencephalon is formed by the A) mesencephalon. B) hypothalamus. C) thalamus. D) myelencephalon. E) brain stem. - Answer: B Sensory information is processed and relayed to the cerebrum by the A) cerebellum. B) pons. C) midbrain. D) thalamus. E) medulla oblongata. - Answer: D Autonomic centers that control blood pressure, heart rate, and digestion are located in the A) pons. B) medulla oblongata. C) diencephalon. D) mesencephalon. E) cerebellum. - Answer: B The ________ provides the principal link between the nervous and endocrine systems. A) medulla oblongata B) cerebrum C) pons D) hypothalamus E) cerebellum - Answer: D What contains a spiderweb like network of cells and fibers through which cerebrospinal fluid flows? A) dural sinus B) subarachnoid space C) falx cerebri D) pia mater E) subdural space - Answer: B Cerebrospinal fluid A) is normally produced twice as fast as it is removed. B) is secreted by ependymal cells. C) has almost the same composition as blood plasma. D) is formed by a passive process. E) both B and D - Answer: B Absorption at the arachnoid granulations returns CSF to the A) fourth ventricle. B) venous circulation. C) arterial circulation. D) central canal. E) third ventricle. - Answer: B Cerebrospinal fluid enters the blood circulation at the A) tentorium cerebelli. B) frontal sinus. C) jugular veins. D) dural drain. E) superior sagittal sinus. - Answer: E Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to maintain balance and equilibrium are functions of the A) cerebellum. B) mesencephalon. C) cerebrum. D) medulla oblongata. E) pons. - Answer: A Which of the following is a function of the thalamus? A) secrete cerebrospinal fluid B) secrete melatonin C) process sensory information and relay it to the cerebrum D) regulate food intake E) store memories - Answer: C Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus? A) regulates body temperature B) secretes oxytocin C) produces ADH D) controls autonomic centers E) all of the above - Answer: E Damage to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus leads to which problem? A) an insatiable appetite B) an intense thirst C) reduced ability to regulate body temperature D) an uncontrolled sex drive E) production of a large volume of urine - Answer: C The ________ is important in storage and recall of new long-term memories. A) amygdaloid body B) hippocampus C) fornix D) mamillary bodies E) cingulate gyrus - Answer: B The cerebral area posterior to the central sulcus is the A) occipital lobe. B) insula. C) temporal lobe. D) parietal lobe. E) frontal lobe. - Answer: D The primary motor cortex is the surface of the A) precentral gyrus. B) corpus callosum. C) postcentral gyrus. D) arcuate gyrus. E) insula. - Answer: A The visual cortex is located in the A) occipital lobe. B) parietal lobe. C) temporal lobe. D) insula. E) frontal lobe. - Answer: A The auditory cortex is located in the A) occipital lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) parietal lobe. D) insula. E) frontal lobe - Answer: B The corpus callosum is composed of A) association fibers. B) projection fibers. C) commissural fibers. D) arcuate fibers. E) longitudinal fasciculi. - Answer: C The basal nuclei A) coordinate sensory information. B) control the secretions of the pituitary gland. C) control respiration and blood pressure. D) plan and coordinate voluntary muscle activity. E) provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking. - Answer: E Parkinson disease is the result of A) decreased levels of acetylcholine from neurons in the substantia nigra. B) weak response of the red nuclei of the mesencephalon. C) hyperactivity of the limbic system. D) inadequate production of GABA by neurons in the basal nuclei. E) inadequate production of dopamine by substantia nigra neurons. - Answer: E After suffering a stroke, Mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the ________ lobe. A) left temporal B) right temporal C) left frontal D) occipital E) right frontal - Answer: C After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phil loses his vision. The blow probably caused damage to the A) limbic system. B) occipital lobe. C) prefrontal cortex. D) cerebral nuclei. E) postcentral gyrus. - Answer: B Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate and synapse on neurons in the A) cerebral cortex. B) olfactory bulb. C) medulla. D) thalamus. E) olfactory tract. - Answer: B The cranial nerves that innervate the eye muscles are A) II, III, and IV. B) I, II, and III. C) II and VI. D) III, IV, and VI. E) III and V. - Answer: D Droopy eyelids and double vision can result from injury to the ________ nerve. A) optic B) trochlear C) abducens D) olfactory E) oculomotor - Answer: E The cranial nerve that has three major branches is the A) facial. B) abducens. C) glossopharyngeal. D) vagus. E) trigeminal. - Answer: E Which of the cranial nerves is named for the fact that it "wanders," that is, innervates structures throughout the thorax and abdomen? A) XII B) XI C) VIII D) IX E) X - Answer: E Central adaptation refers to A) a characteristic of phasic receptors. B) the decline in activity of peripheral receptors when stimulated. C) a change in motor receptivity of a neuron. D) inhibition of nuclei located along a sensory pathway. E) increases in conscious perception of a sensory stimulus. - Answer: D Thermoreceptors A) are free nerve endings. B) for "cold" are structurally indistinguishable from those for "warm." C) are found within the dermis. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C - Answer: E Receptors that monitor the position of joints belong to the category called A) proprioceptors. B) thermoreceptors. C) baroreceptors. D) nociceptors. E) chemoreceptors - Answer: A A sensory receptor characterized peripherally as a free nerve ending and centrally uses glutamate and/or substance P as neurotransmitters, would most likely be a A) free receptor. B) chemoreceptor. C) mechanoreceptor. D) nociceptor. E) thermoreceptor. - Answer: D The basal nuclei A) activate spinal reflexes. B) act as gatekeepers, filtering out unnecessary sensorimotor activity. C) provide the background patterns of movement involved in voluntary motor activities. D) exert direct control over lower motor neurons. E) initiate conscious motor activity. - Answer: C The cerebellum relies on information from A) the inner ear as movements are under way. B) motor commands from upper motor neurons. C) the eyes. D) proprioceptive sensations. E) all of the above - Answer: E The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function during "rest and digest." A) thoracolumbar B) somatomotor C) parasympathetic D) visceral E) sympathetic - Answer: C Autonomic efferents A) conduct impulses from sensory receptors. B) conduct impulses to smooth and cardiac muscles and glands. C) cause general excitation. D) cause general relaxation. E) conduct impulses to skeletal muscles. - Answer: B If a friend is talking about someone she knows who lost his special senses, you would correct her when you hear her mention ________, because it is not a special sense. A) balance B) cold C) hearing D) sight E) smell - Answer: B In general, sympathetic preganglionic fibers are ________ and postganglionic fibers are ________. A) myelinated; unmyelinated B) long; short C) short; long D) both A and B E) both A and C - Answer: E In the sympathetic nervous system, where are the preganglionic neurons located? A) cervical and sacral segments of the spinal cord B) thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord C) sacral segments of the spinal cord D) brain stem E) both B and C - Answer: B After a stroke, a patient complains about lack of sensitivity in her right hand. The stroke most likely affected which part of the brain? A) Postcentral gyrus in the left parietal lobe B) Precentral gyrus in the left frontal lobe C) Precentral gyrus in the right frontal lobe D) Postcentral gyrus in the right temporal lobe E) Postcentral gyrus in the left frontal lobe - Answer: A The conscious state is maintained by the A) general interpretive area. B) prefrontal lobes. C) reticular activating system. D) limbic system. E) nucleus gracilis - Answer: C Which of the following is essential for memory consolidation? A) prefrontal lobe B) insula C) occipital lobe D) basal nuclei E) hippocampus - Answer: E The spinal tract that relays information concerning pain and temperature to the CNS is the A) posterior spinocerebellar. B) fasciculus cuneatus. C) fasciculus gracilis. D) anterior spinothalamic. E) lateral spinothalamic. - Answer: E Stimulation of a neuron that terminates in the superior region of the left postcentral gyrus would produce A) a muscle twitch in the lips. B) a muscle twitch in the right leg. C) a sensation in the lips. D) a sensation in the right leg. E) both sensations and muscle twitches in the right leg. - Answer: D Nonfluent aphasia, due to a lesion in the ________, results in slow speech, difficulty in choosing words, or use of words that only approximate the correct word. A) primary auditory area B) Wernicke area C) Broca area D) cerebral lateralization E) primary motor area - Answer: C Destruction of the amygdala would mostly affect which of the following? A) Awareness of objects B) Expression of emotional feelings C) Recognition and identification of objects D) Memory E) Cognition - Answer: B Which of the following is not one of the six primary taste sensations? A) sour B) peppery C) salty D) umami E) sweet - Answer: B A ray of light entering the eye will encounter these structures in which order? A) conjunctiva cornea aqueous humor lens vitreous body retina choroid B) conjunctiva cornea lens aqueous humor vitreous body retina choroid C) cornea aqueous humor vitreous body lens conjunctiva choroids retina D) vitreous body retina choroids aqueous humor lens conjunctiva cornea E) cornea aqueous humor conjunctiva lens vitreous body retina choroid - Answer: A The gelatinous material that gives the eyeball its basic shape is the A) perilymph. B) posterior cavity. C) vitreous humor. D) ora serrata. E) aqueous humor - Answer: C An area of the retina that contains only cones and is the site of sharpest vision is the A) inner segment. B) outer segment. C) tapetum lucidum. D) optic disc. E) fovea. - Answer: E The human lens focuses light on the photoreceptor cells by A) changing shape. B) opening and closing. C) dilating and constricting. D) moving up and down. E) moving in and out. - Answer: A The space between the cornea and the iris is the A) anterior cavity. B) aqueous humor. C) posterior cavity. D) canal of Schlemm. E) pupil. - Answer: A The opening in the iris through which light passes is the A) cornea. B) anterior chamber. C) conjunctiva. D) posterior chamber. E) pupil. - Answer: E The part of the eye that determines eye color is the A) canal of Schlemm. B) cornea. C) iris. D) conjunctiva. E) pupil. - Answer: C The ________ covers most of the exposed surface of the eye. A) iris B) conjunctiva C) canthus D) cornea E) anterior chamber - Answer: B The largest numbers of taste buds in adults are associated with the A) filiform papillae. B) pharynx. C) larynx. D) fungiform papillae. E) circumvallate papillae. - Answer: E Taste buds are monitored by cranial nerves A) IX, X, XI. B) VII, IX, X. C) VII, VIII, IX. D) IX, XI, XII. E) V, VII, IX - Answer: B The function of gustatory receptors parallels that of A) mechanoreceptors in the ear. B) lamellated corpuscles. C) olfactory receptors. D) Meissner corpuscles. E) light receptors in the eye. - Answer: C Gustatory receptors are located A) on the surface of the tongue. B) on the skin. C) in the ear. D) in the eye. E) in the nose. - Answer: A Before an olfactory receptor can detect an odorant, it has to A) be transported to the olfactory bulbs. B) respond to applied pressure. C) gate open ion channels. D) contact a specialized olfactory cell. E) bind to receptors in olfactory cilia. - Answer: E An elongate outer segment containing membranous discs and a narrow connecting stalk that attaches the outer segment to the inner segment describes A) a photoreceptor. B) a ganglion cell. C) a horizontal cell. D) a bipolar cell. E) an amacrine cell. - Answer: A The external ear ends at the A) cochlea. B) tympanic membrane. C) pinna. D) vestibule. E) ossicles. - Answer: B The auditory ossicles connect the A) tympanic membrane to the round window. B) oval window to the round window. C) tympanic membrane to the oval window. D) stapedius to the tympanic membrane. E) otitis to the media. - Answer: C Gravity and linear acceleration are sensed in the A) semicircular canals. B) saccule and utricle. C) cochlea. D) organ of Corti. E) statoconia. - Answer: B Sound waves are converted into mechanical movements by the A) tympanic membrane. B) round window. C) oval window. D) cochlea. E) auditory ossicles - Answer: A The vestibular nuclei at the boundary of the pons and the medulla function in all of the following, except that they A) relay vestibular information to the cerebellum. B) send commands to motor nuclei in the brain stem and spinal cord. C) relay vestibular information to the cerebral cortex. D) send information to the vestibular complex of the inner ear. E) integrate the vestibular information arriving from each side of the head. - Answer: D Which of these anatomical sequences is correct? A)tympanumNmalleusNincusNstapesNoval windowNround window B)tympanumNincusNmalleusNstapesNoval windowNround window C)tympanumNmalleusNincusNstapesNround windowNoval window D)tympanumNincusNmalleusNstapesNround windowNoval window E)tympanumNincusNstapesNmalleusNoval windowNround window - Answer: A The following is a list of the steps that occur in the production of an auditory sensation. 1. The pressure wave distorts the basilar membrane on its way to the round window. 2. Movement of the tympanic membrane causes displacement of the malleus. 3. Displacement of the stereocilia stimulates sensory neurons of the cochlear nerve. 4. Movement of the malleus causes movement of the incus and stapes. 5. Distortion of the basilar membrane forces the hair cells of the organ of Corti toward or away from the tectorial membrane. 6. Movement of the oval window establishes pressure waves in the perilymph of the vestibular duct. The proper sequence for these steps is A) 2, 5, 4, 6, 1, 3. B) 2, 4, 1, 6, 5, 3. C) 2, 4, 6, 1, 5, 3. D) 2, 4, 6, 3, 5, 1. E) 2, 1, 4, 6, 5, 3. - Answer: C Endocrine cells A) are a type of nerve cell. B) contain few vesicles. C) release their secretions onto an epithelial surface. D) are modified connective-tissue cells. E) release their secretions directly into body fluids. - Answer: E Steroid hormones A) bind to receptors in the nucleus of their target cells. B) remain in circulation for relatively short periods of time. C) are transported in the blood dissolved in the plasma. D) are proteins. E) cannot diffuse through cell membranes. - Answer: A Which of the following hormones is water soluble and therefore binds to extracellular receptors? A) insulin B) epinephrine C) cortisol D) A and B only E) A, B, and C - Answer: D Changes in blood osmotic pressure would most affect the secretion of A) ADH. B) TSH. C) ACTH. D) LH. E) oxytocin - Answer: A The posterior pituitary gland secretes A) ADH. B) ACTH. C) MSH. D) TSH. E) FSH - Answer: A The hormone oxytocin A) triggers prostate gland contraction. B) promotes uterine contractions. C) is responsible for milk expression from the mammary glands. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C - Answer: E The pituitary hormone that promotes ovarian secretion of progesterone and testicular secretion of testosterone is A) LH. B) FSH. C) TSH. D) ACTH. E) GH. - Answer: A The pituitary hormone that stimulates cell growth and replication by accelerating protein synthesis is A) prolactin. B) MSH. C) somatotropin. D) ACTH. E) insulin. - Answer: C The hypophyseal portal system A) carries ADH and oxytocin. B) has two capillary plexuses connected by short veins. C) carries neurosecretions to the anterior lobe of the pituitary. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C - Answer: E TSH plays a key role in the ________ of thyroid hormones. A) inhibition B) synthesis C) release D) both A and B E) both B and C - Answer: E Each of the following hormones is produced by the pars distalis of the adenohypophysis, except A) corticotropin. B) oxytocin. C) TSH. D) somatotropin. E) FSH - Answer: B The pituitary hormone that causes the kidney to reduce water loss is A) MSH. B) FSH. C) ADH. D) STH. E) TSH. - Answer: C The pituitary hormone that stimulates milk production by the mammary glands is A) FSH. B) TSH. C) ACTH. D) prolactin. E) growth hormone. - Answer: D Growth hormone does all of the following, except that it A) is glucose sparing. B) promotes bone growth. C) causes fat accumulation within adipocytes. D) promotes muscle growth. E) promotes amino acid uptake by cells - Answer: C The pituitary hormone that triggers the release of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland is A) FSH. B) ACTH. C) LH. D) TSH. E) GH. - Answer: D A hormone that can lower blood levels of calcium ion is A) thyroxine. B) oxytocin. C) glucagon. D) parathyroid hormone. E) calcitonin. - Answer: E Increased levels of the hormone ________ will lead to increased levels of calcium ion in the blood. A) aldosterone B) cortisol C) thymosin D) PTH E) calcitonin - Answer: D The hormone that does the opposite of calcitonin is A) parathyroid hormone. B) thyroid hormone. C) insulin. D) glucagon. E) growth hormone. - Answer: A A hormone that promotes gluconeogenesis in the liver is A) thymosin. B) aldosterone. C) parathormone. D) erythropoietin. E) cortisol. - Answer: E A rise in cortisol would cause an increase in each of the following, except A) the level of fatty acids in the blood. B) the rate of glucose synthesis by the liver. C) fatty acid metabolism by muscle cells. D) ACTH levels. E) the rate of glycogen formation by the liver. - Answer: D The pancreatic hormone that causes blood sugar levels to fall is A) somatotropin. B) aldosterone. C) cortisol. D) glucagon. E) insulin. - Answer: E When blood glucose levels fall, A) peripheral cells take up more glucose. B) protein synthesis increases. C) insulin is released. D) glucagon is released. E) both B and D - Answer: D The beta cells of the pancreatic islets produce A) somatostatin. B) peptide P. C) insulin. D) cortisol. E) glucagon - Answer: C The exocrine portion of the pancreas produces A) glucagon. B) digestive enzymes. C) insulin. D) somatotropin. E) bile - Answer: B Inability of the pancreas to produce insulin results in A) acromegaly. B) goiter. C) Addison disease. D) diabetes insipidus. E) diabetes mellitus. - Answer: E In persons with untreated diabetes mellitus, A) a large excretion of urine occurs. B) blood glucose levels are very high. C) glucose is present in the urine in large amounts. D) excessive thirst is shown. E) all of the above - Answer: E The interstitial cells of the testes produce A) progesterone. B) LH. C) FSH. D) inhibin. E) testosterone. - Answer: E Follicle cells in the ovary secrete ________ when stimulated by FSH. A) estrogen B) gonadotropins C) inhibin D) testosterone E) progesterone - Answer: A The zona fasciculata of the suprarenal cortex produces A) glucocorticoids. B) androgens. C) epinephrine. D) norepinephrine. E) mineralocorticoids. - Answer: A Parathyroid hormone does all of the following, except that it doesn't A) stimulate osteoclast activity. B) stimulate the formation and secretion of calcitriol at the kidneys. C) enhance the reabsorption of calcium at the kidneys. D) build up bone. E) inhibit osteoblast activity. - Answer: D Contracting the gastrocnemius muscles to elevate the body on the toes involves a ________ lever. A) fourth-class B) third-class C) first-class D) second-class E) both B and C - Answer: D

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Subido en
27 de marzo de 2025
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BIOS 252 Final Exam Practice test
Questions and Complete Solutions
Graded A+
Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle?



1) A) guard body entrances and exits

B) maintain posture

C) maintain body temperature

D) produce movement

E) all of the above - Answer: E



Nerves and blood vessels that service the muscle fibers are located in the connective tissues of the

A) myofibrils.

B) sarcolemma.

C) endomysium.

D) sarcomere.

E) perimysium. - Answer: E



Which of the following best describes the term sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A) largely made of myosin molecules

B) storage and release site for calcium ions

C) thin filaments are anchored here

D) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle

E) repeating unit of striated myofibrils - Answer: B



Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for

A) the conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber.

,B) muscle fatigue.

C) the striped appearance of skeletal muscle.

D) muscle contraction.

E) muscle relaxation. - Answer: D



The region of the sarcomere that always contains thin filaments is the

A) Z line.

B) A band.

C) H band.

D) M line.

E) I band. - Answer: E



At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by

A) calcium ions.

B) troponin molecules.

C) tropomyosin molecules.

D) myosin molecules.

E) ATP molecules. - Answer: C



Cross-bridges are portions of

A) actin molecules.

B) myosin molecules.

C) tropomyosin molecules.

D) troponin molecules.

E) calcium ions. - Answer: B



When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, A) the zones of overlap get larger.

B) the H bands and I bands get smaller.

C) the Z lines get closer together. D) the width of the A band remains constant.

,E) all of the above - Answer: E



The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction. 1. Myosin cross-bridges bind
to the actin.

2. The free myosin head splits ATP.

3. Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

4. The myosin head pivots toward the center of the sarcomere.

5. Calcium ion binds to troponin. 6. The myosin head binds an ATP molecule and detaches from the
actin.

The correct sequence of these events is

A) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6.

B) 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5.

C) 1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2.

D) 5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 3.

E) 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2. - Answer: E



Active sites on the actin become available for binding after

A) troponin binds to tropomyosin. B) calcium binds to tropomyosin. C) myosin binds to troponin.

D) calcium binds to troponin.

E) actin binds to troponin. - Answer: D



In an isotonic contraction,

A) muscle tension exceeds the load and the muscle lifts the load. B) many twitches fuse into one.

C) tension rises and falls but the muscle length is constant.

D) flexion is produced.

E) the peak tension is less than the load. - Answer: A



During anaerobic glycolysis

A) oxygen is not consumed.

, B) pyruvic acid is produced.

C) ATP is produced.

D) all of the above

E) B and C only - Answer: D



The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber.

A) intermediate

B) fast

C) high-density

D) anaerobic

E) slow - Answer: E



Shortening a muscle while it maintains constant tension is called ________.

A) complete tetanus

B) an isometric contraction

C) an isotonic contraction

D) incomplete tetanus

E) an isokinetic contraction - Answer: C



Which of the following is not a characteristic of a muscle cell?

A) Conductivity

B) Excitability

C) Contractility

D) Plasticity

E) Extensibility - Answer: D



The most common lever systems in the body are those that have the applied force between the fulcrum
and the load. These are called ________ levers.

A) fourth-class
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