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Examen

MENTAL HESI HEALTH WITH NGN FORMAT NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM ALL QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED SOLUTIONS

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Subido en
23-03-2025
Escrito en
2024/2025

This document contains a HESI model examination with final exam review questions and answers. It tests knowledge on various HESI topics

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Hesi

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Subido en
23 de marzo de 2025
Número de páginas
14
Escrito en
2024/2025
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Examen
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MENTAL HESI HEALTH WITH NGN FORMAT NEWEST
2025 ACTUAL EXAM ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A+




The client is assessed by the nurse, a social worker, and the healthcare provider (HCP). Based on their
assessments, hospitalization is recommended for psychotic depression.
Which behavior is inconsistent with depression? - ANS-Hearing a man's voice.
Rationale: Auditory hallucinations are inconsistent with depression and are more likely to occur with
psychoses. However, clients may experience a psychotic depression in which there is evidence of
psychosis.

The nurse asks the client to sign the consent for treatment.

If the client refuses treatment, which behaviors justify short-term involuntary treatment? (Select all that
apply. One, some, or all options may be correct.) - ANS-Unable to meet basic self-care needs.
Rationale: Involuntary treatment can be initiated if the client is unable to meet basic self-care needs in
such a way that he or she is a danger to self.
States she has a plan to harm herself.
Rationale: Short-term involuntary care may be initiated to protect the client if she has a plan to harm
herself. It can also be initiated if she presents an intentional danger to others.

The client signs the treatment form and is admitted to the mental health unit. During the first days of
hospitalization, she begins antidepressant therapy with fluoxetine 10 mg.

In what classification of drugs is the antidepressant fluoxetine? - ANS-Selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitor (SSRI).
Rationale: Fluoxetine is an SSRI antidepressant.

What is the major action of SSRI antidepressants? - ANS-Increase availability of serotonin.
Rationale: The major action of SSRIs is to selectively inhibit the reuptake of serotonin and increase the
availability of serotonin.

The nurse understands that SSRIs are now more widely prescribed than tricyclics for antidepressant
therapy. What is the rationale? - ANS-Tricyclics have more dangerous side effects.
Rationale: SSRIs are more widely prescribed than tricyclics because they have fewer side effects, and
tricyclics can be lethal in an overdose because they are cardiotoxic.

, When the client receives fluoxetine, the nurse must explain the purpose and when to expect therapeutic
effectiveness. What should the nurse tell the client regarding when she will begin to feel less depressed?
- ANS-Generally within 1 to 4 weeks.
Rationale: In general, it takes 2 to 4 weeks for antidepressant effects to begin. However, it depends on
the individual, and some clients may feel effects start as soon as 1 week or as late as 4 weeks. It is
suggested that depression occurs when a depletion of neurotransmitters in the synapse cause the
transmitter receptors to increase. As the antidepressants make more transmitters available, it takes the
receptors several weeks to return their numbers back to normal and allow normal synaptic activity.

The nurse should be aware of common side effects of SSRI antidepressants such as fluoxetine. Which
side effect should be communicated to the client that commonly occur in clients who are taking SSRI
antidepressants? - ANS-Gastrointestinal disturbances.
Rationale: GI disturbances such as nausea and diarrhea, as well as genitourinary side effects such as
sexual dysfunction, are common with SSRIs. SSRIs do not have significant anticholinergic, cardiovascular,
or sedative side effects.

The client also begins an atypical antipsychotic, risperidone, because she reports hearing a "scary voice"
upon admission. Although the client remains very withdrawn and noncommunicative, the nurse must
explain the purpose of risperidone. Which explanation is best? - ANS-Risperidone will help the think
more clearly.
Rationale: Antipsychotic medications target symptoms related to disorders of thinking such as psychosis
and behaviors associated with agitation and disorganization or speech and behavior.

The nurse is reviewing the client's admission lab work on the third day of hospitalization. Admission labs
include thyroid profile, urinalysis, chemistry panel, pregnancy test, urine drug screen, and VDRL (RPR)
which tests for venereal disease.

A thyroid profile is important for several reasons. What role do thyroid levels play in depression? - ANS-
Hypothyroidism can lead to feeling sluggish and depressed.
Rationale: Thyroid levels can help detect hypothyroidism, which can lead to depression.

The nurse understands that a VDRL is routinely done on admission for which reason? - ANS-It is a
screening test for syphilis.
Rationale: A VDRL (RPR) is a serum screening test for syphilis, which can be undetected and dormant
and can cause cognitive impairment in later stages. If the screening serum test is positive, a more
specific test is required to make the diagnosis of syphilis.

When the client awakens in the morning, she sits for periods of time at the edge of her bed. She does
not initiate combing her hair, getting dressed, or going to breakfast. Which intervention should the
nurse implement? - ANS-Help the client with daily activities.
Rationale: When a client is very depressed, it is necessary to assist with daily activities because the client
has decreased energy. Physical care is more important with severe depression.

Since the client has decreased energy, which additional intervention should the nurse implement? -
ANS-Plan a scheduled rest period.
Rationale: It is best to plan rest periods according to the client's energy level because some clients feel
best in the morning and others feel best in the evening.
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