WGU D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse Questions and Verified Rationalized Answers, 100- Guarantee Pass.pdf

1. Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females?-
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: Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected
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chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
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2. In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
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cause?: Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are
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the leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
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3. What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?: Chorionic villus
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sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are
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examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro.CVS is a form of
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genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually
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performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form
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of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the
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secondtrimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy.PGT is performed on the
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embryo prior to implantation.
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4. Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
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chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a
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missing gene?: Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a
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DNA deletion.This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the
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syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight
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baby with a piercing cry.
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5. How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations?: The disease can be
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transmitted through female carriers.
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Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
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,unaffected X to a daughter or son.Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the
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disease because she has the other X (the onlyX the father can give to a female) to cancel it
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out.
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6. Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the
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entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed population?: Relative
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risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
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7. What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?: -
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Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation
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and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate
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assessment.
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8. What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair.: The imprinted gene is the
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silent gene of a gene pair.
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9. What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflamma- tion
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and wound healing?: The underlying chronic illness exists.
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,A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
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reserves to fight against illness.
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10. Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?: -
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Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites. J J J J J J J




11. What Phagocytes bacteria?: Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing
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bacteria.
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12. What is the first response to a foreign pathogen?: Helper T cells
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13. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity
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when considering the antigen?: Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to
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recognize something foreign.
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14. How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered,
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causing an ABO incompatibility?: The complement pathway is activated in re-
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sponse to blood incompatibility.
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15. What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis?: An
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immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
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16. Which four infections are considered fungal infections?: Infection with a
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fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to
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several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which
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include candida and aspergillus.
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17. When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can
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detect infection?: Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
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transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a
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positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to
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testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
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suspected.
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18. What is a characteristic of exotoxins?: Exotoxins are released during bacte- rial
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growth.
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19. Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
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developing colon cancer?: The results of decreased fat consumption have been
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widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
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20. Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40
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years most likely to develop?: Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of
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lung and lung lining cancer.
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21. Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light? J J J J J J J




The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength.: UV light causes
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basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit
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, DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together,
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becoming thymine dimers.These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
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22. Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing?: Ex- J J J J J J J J J J




ercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
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23. Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pres-
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sure control and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
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true or false: TRUE
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By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
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outcomes may result.
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24. One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to
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incorporate research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood
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through university-level education in a manner consistent with an individual's
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literacy level.
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True or false: True J J J




Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for
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understanding and compliance.
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25. What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy?: Low literacy often leads to
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perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions.
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Ensuring the patient fully understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
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26. Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health J J J J J J J J




histories.
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Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation?: -
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Those who have a family history of genetic disorders
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27. Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of J J J J J J J J J J J J




obesity.
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What do these genes influence?: Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that
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genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
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28. Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approxi- J J J J J J J J J J




mately 1 in 600 black Americans an example of?: Prevalence tells us how often
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diseaseisseen ina population,which includesallpeople withthe diseaseat a given time,
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at any stage in the disease progression.
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29. What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome?-
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: Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15. Nor-
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mally, a portion of this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi
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syndrome, the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
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30. Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process?: Prevent infection of J J J J J J J J J J J




the injured tissue
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