HESI RN Pharmacology Exam 2022 V2 Advanced Test Questions And Correct Detailed Answers.

Laxative assessment - correct answer Before administering a laxative to a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to observe the skin integrity of the client's rectal and sacral areas. Ginkgo biloba teaching - correct answer When teaching a client with multiple sclerosis about ginkgo biloba, it is most important for the nurse to include information about the potential interaction with aspirin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Benefits of TMP-SMZ (Bactrim) - correct answer In explaining the benefits of the combination anti-infective drug TMP-SMZ (Bactrim) to a client receiving the medication for a urinary tract infection, the nurse should provide rationale that the two drugs work together to reduce resistance of the bacterial infection. Haldol side effects - correct answer When a client being treated with Haldol for schizophrenia complains of jaw tightness and a stiff neck, the nurse should implement the intervention of giving a PRN dose of diphenhydramine (Benadryl). Intervention for Lispro Humalog insulin - correct answer The most important intervention for the nurse to implement for a client receiving Lispro Humalog insulin is to provide meals at the same time that insulin is given. NSAIDs and anemia - correct answer When a client with rheumatoid arthritis who takes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs every day is being treated for anemia, the most important intervention for the nurse to include in the plan of care is to observe for gastrointestinal bleeding. Theophylline level interpretation - correct answer Based on a theophylline level of 22 mcg/mL drawn yesterday, the nurse can determine that the theophylline dose can be initiated as planned for a client receiving theophylline (Theo-Dur) PO. Lab result to report for neuromuscular blocking agent - correct answer When reviewing a client's laboratory results before a procedure in which a neuromuscular blocking agent is a standing order, the nurse should report the finding of hypokalemia to the health care provider. Atropine sulfate purpose - correct answer The primary purpose for administering atropine sulfate (Atropine), IM STAT, to a child prior to an emergency appendectomy is to decrease the oral secretions. Digoxin toxicity risk factor - correct answer When caring for a client on digoxin (Lanoxin) therapy, the nurse should be alert for digoxin toxicity, which is more likely to occur in a client with a low serum potassium level. Superinfection symptom - correct answer A complaint of 'My mouth feels sore' should alert the nurse to the possibility that a client receiving anti-infective drug therapy for a postoperative infection has contracted a superinfection. Tetracycline absorption interference - correct answer When a client taking tetracycline hydrochloride (Sumycin) for urethritis tells the nurse about concurrent medication use, the nurse should identify that sucralfate (Carafate) could interfere with the absorption of tetracycline. Nitroglycerin effectiveness assessment - correct answer Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin, a decrease in the level of chest pain indicates that the medication was effective. Heparin therapeutic goal - correct answer The achievement of a therapeutic goal for heparin administration is represented by alteration of the partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Naloxone hydrochloride for opioid overdose - correct answer If a client with opioid overdose becomes comatose, the nurse should prepare to administer naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan). Benefits of multiple drugs for tuberculosis - correct answer When a client with HIV who was recently diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) asks why they need to take multiple medications for TB, the nurse should provide the information that multiple drugs prevent the development of resistant organisms. Severe acute anaphylactic response - correct answer If a client experiences severe acute symptoms such as hives, difficulty breathing, and hypotension two hours after taking the first dose of penicillin, the nurse should recognize this as a severe acute anaphylactic response that requires immediate action. Gentamicin sulfate treatment contraindication - correct answer When initiating treatment with IV infusions of gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin), the nurse should ask the client if they have ever been diagnosed with cancer. Opiate tolerance explanation - correct answer When a male client who has chronic back pain on long-term pain medication management asks why his pain relief therapy is not as effective as it was 2 months ago, the nurse should respond that pharmacodynamics tolerance requires increased drug levels to achieve the same effect. Hepatotoxic antibiotic instruction - correct answer When providing discharge instructions to a client who has received a prescription for an antibiotic that is hepatotoxic, the nurse should include the information to avoid ingesting any alcohol or acetaminophen (Tylenol). Amantadine action - correct answer Amantadine (Symmetrel) increases dopamine in the central nervous system and is used to treat mild Parkinsonism. Corticosteroid administration routine - correct answer When a female client who has started long-term corticosteroid therapy tells the nurse about her routine for taking the medication at bedtime with a snack of crackers and milk, the nurse should affirm that the client has a safe and effective routine for taking the medication. Cholinesterase inhibitor coping strategies - correct answer When a female client with myasthenia gravis taking a cholinesterase inhibitor asks what can be done to remedy her fatigue and difficulty swallowing, the nurse should explore a plan for development of coping strategies for the symptoms with the client. Tetracycline (Vibramycin) teaching - correct answer When a female client is receiving tetracycline (Vibramycin) for acne, the nurse should include in the client teaching that the urine will turn a red-orange color. Metronidazole (Flagyl) teaching - correct answer When a female client with trichomoniasis (Trichomonas vaginalis) receives a prescription for metronidazole (Flagyl), the most important instruction for the nurse to include in this client's teaching plan is to treat partner(s) concurrently. DPT immunization injection site - correct answer The preferred injection site to administer the first DPT immunization in a 2-month-old infant is the vastus lateralis. Lovastatin (Mevacor) understanding evaluation - correct answer To evaluate whether the administration of lovastatin (Mevacor) has caused a therapeutic effect, the nurse should compare the client's blood pressure before and after the client takes the medication. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) PCA pump assessment - correct answer When a client with a colon resection is receiving a constant dose of hydromorphone (Dilaudid) via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump, the most significant assessment finding that requires nurse intervention is a decrease in respirations to 14 breaths/min. Antihypertensive administration precaution - correct answer The most important action for the nurse to implement prior to administering a dose of antihypertensive medication is to obtain the client's blood pressure. Risk for adverse reactions assessment - correct answer When the charge nurse is reviewing the admission history and physical data for four clients newly admitted to the unit, the client at greatest risk for adverse reactions to medications is the 75-year-old woman with liver disease. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) administration intervention - correct answer Prior to administering the first dose of enoxapa