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SAEM COMPREHENSIVE ASSESMENT TEST 2025/2026 GRADED A+ 125 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

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SAEM COMPREHENSIVE ASSESMENT TEST 2025/2026 GRADED A+ 125 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS A 23-year-old male presents after a syncopal episode. EKG findings include normal sinus rhythm, a short PR interval (less than 0.12 seconds), QRS duration of 0.11 seconds, and the presence of a "delta wave" (a slurred upstroke to the QRS complex). What condition most likely caused the syncopal episode? A. Vasovagal reaction B. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome C. Brugada syndrome D. Dextrocardia - B Of the options below, the therapy best for symptomatic 3rd degree heart block is: A. oxygen B. cardioversion C. lidocaine D. transcutaneous pacer E. atropine - D A 54 year old female presents with palpitations. She is otherwise asymptomatic. EKG shows atrial f ibrillation. Vital signs are HR 130-150, BP 148/78, RR 16, T 36.7. What management intervention is most important to accomplish next? A. Pharmacologic ventricular rate control B. Radiofrequency ablation C. Anticoagulation D. Cardioversion - A An 8 year old female presents with a regular, narrow-complex SVT. You diagnose AV nodal reentrant tachycardia. Which pharmacologic agent would be most appropriate for initial management?

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Subido en
13 de febrero de 2025
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Escrito en
2024/2025
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SAEM END YEAR EXAM 2025/2026 125 QUESTIONS WITH
100% CORRECT ANSWERS
Generally speaking, a patient with a TIA history who presents with a new stroke, likely has which kind
of stroke?

Answers:

1.hemorrhagic



2.thrombotic



3.embolic



4.hypoperfusion



5.there is equal likelihood for any stroke type - 2.thrombotic



Which of the following is not a known complication of subarachnoid hemorrhage in the immediate
several weeks following the initial bleed?

Answers:

1.seizure



2.cerebral artery vasospasm



3.rebleeding



4.hydrocephalus



5.hypernatremia - 5.hypernatremia



A 36 year old woman presents to the emergency department two hours after the sudden onset of a
severe occipital headache and nausea. She has a history of migraine headaches that typically occur in
the right frontal area and are associated with an aura. Her temperature is 98.8 degrees Fahrenheit,
her neck is supple, and her neurological exam is normal. A non-contrast CT scan of her head is
normal. Of the options below, what is the next step in her management?

, Answers:

1.Discharge her home with prochlorperazine and close instructions to return if her symptoms
worsen.



2.Observe for 6 hours, administer acetaminophen and normal saline, and discharge home if she feels
better.



3.Perform a lumbar puncture to rule out the possibility of subarachnoid hemorrhage.



4.Consult a neurologist for evaluation of atypical migraines.



5.Observe for 6 hours and then obtain a repeat CT scan; if normal, discharge home. - 3.Perform a
lumbar puncture to rule out the possibility of subarachnoid hemorrhage.



Which of the following descriptors of epidural hematoma is FALSE?

Answers:

1.Biconvex blood collection between the skull and dura



2.Most often a result of a skull fracture that traverses a venous sinus



3.Classically associated with a "lucid" interval prior to coma



4.Present in only about 1% of severe head injury patients



5.Immediate surgical evacuation is indicated - 2.Most often a result of a skull fracture that traverses a
venous sinus



Epidural hematomas are least likely in which age group?

Answers:

1.Children less than 2 years



2.Children between 8 and 14
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