ESTUDYR
NR511 FINAL QUESTIONS AND REVISED CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH 100% WITH RATIONALES
1. Samuel, age 5, is receiving radiation therapy for his acute lymphocytic leukemia. He is at increased
risk of developing which type of cancer as a secondary malignancy when he becomes an adult?
A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B. Brain tumor (✔ Correct Answer)
C. Liver cancer
D. Esophageal cancer
Rationale: Radiation therapy in childhood increases the risk of brain tumors later in life due to the
sensitivity of developing brain tissues to radiation.
2. Why is parathyroid hormone secretion increased during pregnancy?
A. To meet the increased stress demands on the mother
B. To meet the increased requirements for calcium and vitamin D for fetal skeletal growth (✔ Correct
Answer)
C. To help prevent neural tube defects in the fetus
D. To help promote neurological growth
Rationale: Increased parathyroid hormone during pregnancy helps mobilize calcium for the developing
fetal skeleton and supports maternal bone health.
3. What is the name of the test used to assess for nerve-root compression?
A. The Apley scratch test
B. The drop arm test
C. Finkelstein's test
D. Spurling's maneuver (✔ Correct Answer)
Rationale: Spurling's maneuver is a physical test used to diagnose nerve root compression by applying
pressure to the cervical spine.
4. A 46-year-old African American man is in your office for a physical examination. You recommend
which of the following as screening for prostate cancer?
,ESTUDYR
A. A digital rectal examination (DRE)
B. None; there is no conclusive evidence for screening until age 75 and older (✔ Correct Answer)
C. Serum testosterone level testing
D. Annual PSA testing starting at age 40
Rationale: Guidelines for prostate cancer screening emphasize shared decision-making, with evidence
not supporting routine screening in younger age groups.
5. Which of the following individuals most likely will have a false-negative reaction to the Mantoux
test?
A. Marvin, age 57
B. Jane, who is on a short course of corticosteroids for asthma
C. Jerry, who has lymphoid leukemia (✔ Correct Answer)
D. Mary, who recently was exposed to someone coughing
Rationale: Immunosuppression from leukemia reduces the ability to mount an adequate response to
the test, leading to false-negative results.
6. Specific conditions demonstrate fluid in the scrotum on transillumination. These include:
A. Testicular cancer
B. A varicocele
C. A hydrocele (✔ Correct Answer)
D. Testicular torsion
Rationale: Hydroceles are collections of fluid in the scrotum that transilluminate when light is passed
through them.
7. Max, age 16, presents after sustaining a human bite on his fist. Your first course of action is to:
A. Give a tetanus injection
B. Thoroughly débride and irrigate the wound (✔ Correct Answer)
C. Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics
D. Leave the wound open for drainage
Rationale: Thorough cleaning of the wound is the first priority to reduce the risk of infection from
human bite wounds.
,ESTUDYR
8. Marisa, age 42, has celiac disease. She is prone to osteopenic bone disease as a result of impaired
calcium absorption because of:
A. Increased calcium absorption by the small intestine
B. Increased absorption of the fat-soluble vitamin D
C. The binding of calcium and magnesium by unabsorbed dietary fatty acids (✔ Correct Answer)
D. Decreased magnesium absorption
Rationale: Fat malabsorption in celiac disease binds calcium and magnesium, reducing their availability
for absorption.
9. Contributing factors to urge urinary incontinence include:
A. Stress or exertion on the bladder
B. Increased bladder irritation from caffeine or alcohol (✔ Correct Answer)
C. Bladder outlet obstruction
D. Nerve compression in the lower back
Rationale: Urge incontinence is typically caused by bladder irritation or neurological conditions leading
to involuntary contractions.
10. Samuel wants his newborn son circumcised, but the baby has hypospadias. What do you tell
Samuel?
A. "Your son should be circumcised as soon as possible."
B. "Wait until your son is 1 month old; then he can be circumcised."
C. "We first have to check to see where the opening is."
D. "Your son should not be circumcised." (✔ Correct Answer)
Rationale: Circumcision should be avoided in cases of hypospadias because the foreskin may be needed
for surgical repair.
11. The highest risk factor for the development of testicular cancer is:
A. Cryptorchidism (✔ Correct Answer)
B. Caucasian race
C. HIV infection
D. Hormonal imbalance in utero
Rationale: Cryptorchidism (undescended testes) is the most significant risk factor for testicular cancer.
, ESTUDYR
12. The most common cause of urethral discharge and dysuria in young adult males is:
A. Chronic prostatitis
B. Prostatic abscess
C. Acute prostatitis (✔ Correct Answer)
D. Prostatic hypertrophy
Rationale: Acute prostatitis is often caused by bacterial infections, leading to symptoms such as dysuria
and urethral discharge.
13. Bernard, age 59, presents with priapism. After initial treatment fails, the preferred management
is:
A. Terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously
B. Phenylephrine injection into the corpora cavernosa (✔ Correct Answer)
C. Doxazosin 5 mg orally
D. Lidocaine 1% via the glans
Rationale: Phenylephrine, an alpha-adrenergic agonist, is commonly used to relieve priapism by
reducing blood flow to the penis.
14. Hormonal therapy for prostate cancer using goserelin acetate works by:
A. Blocking follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) (✔ Correct Answer)
B. Increasing testosterone production
C. Directly killing cancer cells
D. Preventing blood supply to the tumor
Rationale: Goserelin acetate acts by suppressing FSH and LH to reduce testosterone levels, a key driver
of prostate cancer growth.
15. Samuel, age 62, is complaining of erectile dysfunction. Which of his medications is most likely the
cause?
A. Furosemide (Lasix)
B. Reserpine (Serpasil) (✔ Correct Answer)
C. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
D. Isosorbide (Imdur)
NR511 FINAL QUESTIONS AND REVISED CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH 100% WITH RATIONALES
1. Samuel, age 5, is receiving radiation therapy for his acute lymphocytic leukemia. He is at increased
risk of developing which type of cancer as a secondary malignancy when he becomes an adult?
A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B. Brain tumor (✔ Correct Answer)
C. Liver cancer
D. Esophageal cancer
Rationale: Radiation therapy in childhood increases the risk of brain tumors later in life due to the
sensitivity of developing brain tissues to radiation.
2. Why is parathyroid hormone secretion increased during pregnancy?
A. To meet the increased stress demands on the mother
B. To meet the increased requirements for calcium and vitamin D for fetal skeletal growth (✔ Correct
Answer)
C. To help prevent neural tube defects in the fetus
D. To help promote neurological growth
Rationale: Increased parathyroid hormone during pregnancy helps mobilize calcium for the developing
fetal skeleton and supports maternal bone health.
3. What is the name of the test used to assess for nerve-root compression?
A. The Apley scratch test
B. The drop arm test
C. Finkelstein's test
D. Spurling's maneuver (✔ Correct Answer)
Rationale: Spurling's maneuver is a physical test used to diagnose nerve root compression by applying
pressure to the cervical spine.
4. A 46-year-old African American man is in your office for a physical examination. You recommend
which of the following as screening for prostate cancer?
,ESTUDYR
A. A digital rectal examination (DRE)
B. None; there is no conclusive evidence for screening until age 75 and older (✔ Correct Answer)
C. Serum testosterone level testing
D. Annual PSA testing starting at age 40
Rationale: Guidelines for prostate cancer screening emphasize shared decision-making, with evidence
not supporting routine screening in younger age groups.
5. Which of the following individuals most likely will have a false-negative reaction to the Mantoux
test?
A. Marvin, age 57
B. Jane, who is on a short course of corticosteroids for asthma
C. Jerry, who has lymphoid leukemia (✔ Correct Answer)
D. Mary, who recently was exposed to someone coughing
Rationale: Immunosuppression from leukemia reduces the ability to mount an adequate response to
the test, leading to false-negative results.
6. Specific conditions demonstrate fluid in the scrotum on transillumination. These include:
A. Testicular cancer
B. A varicocele
C. A hydrocele (✔ Correct Answer)
D. Testicular torsion
Rationale: Hydroceles are collections of fluid in the scrotum that transilluminate when light is passed
through them.
7. Max, age 16, presents after sustaining a human bite on his fist. Your first course of action is to:
A. Give a tetanus injection
B. Thoroughly débride and irrigate the wound (✔ Correct Answer)
C. Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics
D. Leave the wound open for drainage
Rationale: Thorough cleaning of the wound is the first priority to reduce the risk of infection from
human bite wounds.
,ESTUDYR
8. Marisa, age 42, has celiac disease. She is prone to osteopenic bone disease as a result of impaired
calcium absorption because of:
A. Increased calcium absorption by the small intestine
B. Increased absorption of the fat-soluble vitamin D
C. The binding of calcium and magnesium by unabsorbed dietary fatty acids (✔ Correct Answer)
D. Decreased magnesium absorption
Rationale: Fat malabsorption in celiac disease binds calcium and magnesium, reducing their availability
for absorption.
9. Contributing factors to urge urinary incontinence include:
A. Stress or exertion on the bladder
B. Increased bladder irritation from caffeine or alcohol (✔ Correct Answer)
C. Bladder outlet obstruction
D. Nerve compression in the lower back
Rationale: Urge incontinence is typically caused by bladder irritation or neurological conditions leading
to involuntary contractions.
10. Samuel wants his newborn son circumcised, but the baby has hypospadias. What do you tell
Samuel?
A. "Your son should be circumcised as soon as possible."
B. "Wait until your son is 1 month old; then he can be circumcised."
C. "We first have to check to see where the opening is."
D. "Your son should not be circumcised." (✔ Correct Answer)
Rationale: Circumcision should be avoided in cases of hypospadias because the foreskin may be needed
for surgical repair.
11. The highest risk factor for the development of testicular cancer is:
A. Cryptorchidism (✔ Correct Answer)
B. Caucasian race
C. HIV infection
D. Hormonal imbalance in utero
Rationale: Cryptorchidism (undescended testes) is the most significant risk factor for testicular cancer.
, ESTUDYR
12. The most common cause of urethral discharge and dysuria in young adult males is:
A. Chronic prostatitis
B. Prostatic abscess
C. Acute prostatitis (✔ Correct Answer)
D. Prostatic hypertrophy
Rationale: Acute prostatitis is often caused by bacterial infections, leading to symptoms such as dysuria
and urethral discharge.
13. Bernard, age 59, presents with priapism. After initial treatment fails, the preferred management
is:
A. Terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously
B. Phenylephrine injection into the corpora cavernosa (✔ Correct Answer)
C. Doxazosin 5 mg orally
D. Lidocaine 1% via the glans
Rationale: Phenylephrine, an alpha-adrenergic agonist, is commonly used to relieve priapism by
reducing blood flow to the penis.
14. Hormonal therapy for prostate cancer using goserelin acetate works by:
A. Blocking follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) (✔ Correct Answer)
B. Increasing testosterone production
C. Directly killing cancer cells
D. Preventing blood supply to the tumor
Rationale: Goserelin acetate acts by suppressing FSH and LH to reduce testosterone levels, a key driver
of prostate cancer growth.
15. Samuel, age 62, is complaining of erectile dysfunction. Which of his medications is most likely the
cause?
A. Furosemide (Lasix)
B. Reserpine (Serpasil) (✔ Correct Answer)
C. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
D. Isosorbide (Imdur)
