D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a8cdja
1. Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females?-
: Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected
chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
2. In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause?: Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are
the leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
3. What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?: Chorionic villus
sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are
examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form
of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually
performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form
of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the
second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the
embryo prior to implantation.
4. Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having
one chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome
with a missing gene?: Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is
caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby
affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic,
low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
5. How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations?: The disease can
be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of
the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female)
to cancel it out.
6. Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the
entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed population?: Relative
risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
7. What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?: -
Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation
and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate
assessment.
8. What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair.: The imprinted gene is the
silent gene of a gene pair.
9. What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflamma-
tion and wound healing?: The underlying chronic illness exists.
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a8cdja
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
10. Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?: -
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
11. What Phagocytes bacteria?: Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing
bacteria.
12. What is the first response to a foreign pathogen?: Helper T cells
13. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity
when considering the antigen?: Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability
to recognize something foreign.
14. How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered,
causing an ABO incompatibility?: The complement pathway is activated in re-
sponse to blood incompatibility.
15. What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis?: An
immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
16. Which four infections are considered fungal infections?: Infection with a
fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers
to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which
include candida and aspergillus.
17. When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can
detect infection?: Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a
positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due
to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
suspected.
18. What is a characteristic of exotoxins?: Exotoxins are released during bacte-
rial growth.
19. Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk
for developing colon cancer?: The results of decreased fat consumption have
been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon
cancer.
20. Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40
years most likely to develop?: Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of
lung and lung lining cancer.
21. Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength.: UV light
causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a8cdja
DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together,
becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
22. Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing?: Ex-
ercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
23. Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pres-
sure control and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false: TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
outcomes may result.
24. One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to
incorporate research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood
through university-level education in a manner consistent with an individual's
literacy level.
True or false: True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial
for understanding and compliance.
25. What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy?: Low literacy often leads to
perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions.
Ensuring the patient fully understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
26. Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health
histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation?: -
Those who have a family history of genetic disorders
27. Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of
obesity.
What do these genes influence?: Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that
genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
28. Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approxi-
mately 1 in 600 black Americans an example of?: Prevalence tells us how often
disease is seen in a population, which includes all people with the disease at a given
time, at any stage in the disease progression.
29. What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome?-
: Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15. Nor-
mally, a portion of this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi
syndrome, the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
30. Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process?: Prevent infection
of the injured tissue
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a8cdja
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged
tissue so the body can heal.
31. Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reac-
tions when considering white blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils: Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute inflammation, and
an increase in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory response.
32. Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural
exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen?: Active-ac-
quired immunity or naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an individual is
exposed to a live pathogen and develops the disease or becomes immune as a
result of a vaccine.
33. Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them geneti-
cally predisposed to develop allergies?: The greater quantities of IgE in atopic
individuals make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates
the immune response to allergens; therefore, the more IgE one has, the stronger
the response can be to an allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the army
to fight the war.
34. A healthcare professional is conducting community education on vaccina-
tions.
Which statement about vaccines should the professional include in the pre-
sentation?: Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection.
Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity. The initial effects of a vaccine
may diminish over time, and boosters improve protection against disease.
35. Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease?: Pathogenicity
refers to an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
36. What are signs and symptoms of Cri du Chrat Syndrome?: DNA deletion of
chromosome 5. low birth weight, mental retardation, microencephaly, and cat like
cry
37. What are the 3 layers of human defense?: Physical, Mechanical, biochemical
barriers
38. What happens in the physical layer of human defense.: protect against dam-
age and infection are composed of tightly associated epithelial cells including those
of the skin and of the membranous sheets lining the gastrointestinal, genitourinary,
and respiratory tracts.
Nurse
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a8cdja
1. Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females?-
: Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected
chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
2. In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause?: Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are
the leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
3. What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?: Chorionic villus
sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are
examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form
of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually
performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form
of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the
second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the
embryo prior to implantation.
4. Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having
one chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome
with a missing gene?: Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is
caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby
affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic,
low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
5. How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations?: The disease can
be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of
the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female)
to cancel it out.
6. Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the
entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed population?: Relative
risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
7. What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?: -
Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation
and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate
assessment.
8. What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair.: The imprinted gene is the
silent gene of a gene pair.
9. What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflamma-
tion and wound healing?: The underlying chronic illness exists.
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a8cdja
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
10. Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?: -
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
11. What Phagocytes bacteria?: Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing
bacteria.
12. What is the first response to a foreign pathogen?: Helper T cells
13. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity
when considering the antigen?: Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability
to recognize something foreign.
14. How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered,
causing an ABO incompatibility?: The complement pathway is activated in re-
sponse to blood incompatibility.
15. What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis?: An
immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
16. Which four infections are considered fungal infections?: Infection with a
fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers
to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which
include candida and aspergillus.
17. When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can
detect infection?: Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a
positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due
to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
suspected.
18. What is a characteristic of exotoxins?: Exotoxins are released during bacte-
rial growth.
19. Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk
for developing colon cancer?: The results of decreased fat consumption have
been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon
cancer.
20. Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40
years most likely to develop?: Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of
lung and lung lining cancer.
21. Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength.: UV light
causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a8cdja
DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together,
becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
22. Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing?: Ex-
ercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
23. Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pres-
sure control and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false: TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
outcomes may result.
24. One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to
incorporate research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood
through university-level education in a manner consistent with an individual's
literacy level.
True or false: True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial
for understanding and compliance.
25. What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy?: Low literacy often leads to
perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions.
Ensuring the patient fully understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
26. Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health
histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation?: -
Those who have a family history of genetic disorders
27. Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of
obesity.
What do these genes influence?: Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that
genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
28. Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approxi-
mately 1 in 600 black Americans an example of?: Prevalence tells us how often
disease is seen in a population, which includes all people with the disease at a given
time, at any stage in the disease progression.
29. What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome?-
: Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15. Nor-
mally, a portion of this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi
syndrome, the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
30. Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process?: Prevent infection
of the injured tissue
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a8cdja
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged
tissue so the body can heal.
31. Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reac-
tions when considering white blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils: Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute inflammation, and
an increase in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory response.
32. Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural
exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen?: Active-ac-
quired immunity or naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an individual is
exposed to a live pathogen and develops the disease or becomes immune as a
result of a vaccine.
33. Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them geneti-
cally predisposed to develop allergies?: The greater quantities of IgE in atopic
individuals make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates
the immune response to allergens; therefore, the more IgE one has, the stronger
the response can be to an allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the army
to fight the war.
34. A healthcare professional is conducting community education on vaccina-
tions.
Which statement about vaccines should the professional include in the pre-
sentation?: Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection.
Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity. The initial effects of a vaccine
may diminish over time, and boosters improve protection against disease.
35. Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease?: Pathogenicity
refers to an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
36. What are signs and symptoms of Cri du Chrat Syndrome?: DNA deletion of
chromosome 5. low birth weight, mental retardation, microencephaly, and cat like
cry
37. What are the 3 layers of human defense?: Physical, Mechanical, biochemical
barriers
38. What happens in the physical layer of human defense.: protect against dam-
age and infection are composed of tightly associated epithelial cells including those
of the skin and of the membranous sheets lining the gastrointestinal, genitourinary,
and respiratory tracts.
