1. It is an illness due to a specific agent transmitted by an agent from a reservoir to a susceptible host through different modes of
transmission:
a. Contagious disease
b. Communicable disease
c. Infectious disease
d. Iatrogenic disease
2. A clinically manifest disease of a man or animal resulting from an infection:
a. Contagious disease
b. Communicable disease
c. Infectious disease
d. Iatrogenic disease
3. Presence of classical sings and symptoms that are highly specific to a certain disease is known as:
a. Tell tall signs
b. Pathognomonic sign
c. Distinctive sign
d. Fastigium sign
4. When will you consider that an infection is acquired in the hospital and called as nosocomial?
a. When infection occurred upon admission
b. When infection is acquired before discharge
c. When infection is validated by the laboratory of the hospital
d. When the patient is within 14 days of hospital stay
5. A infection that is completely manifested by signs and symptoms:
a. Opportunistic infection
b. True infection
c. Communicable infection
d. Contagious infection
6. Which of the following is the main cause of nosocomial infection?
a. Surgical wound infection
b. Sepsis
c. Urinary tract infection
d. Respiratory tract infection
7. Which of the following causative agent are able to live in a non-nutritive environment and is easily transmitted in the hospital?
a. S. aureus
b. P. aeruginosa
c. E. Coli
d. H. influenza
8. The infection brought by normal biota of the body with low degree of virulence but may take advantage when the body is
immunocompromised:
a. Opportunistic infection
b. Nosocomial infection
c. True infection
d. Parasitic infection
9. When a disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another, such infection is:
a. Communicable
b. Infectious
c. Contagious
d. Virulent
10. What is the difference between gonorrhea and influenza when taking into consideration being infectious and contagious?
, a. Gonorrhea is infectious and influenza is contagious
b. Influenza is infectious and gonorrhea is contagious
c. Both are contagious and infectious
d. Gonorrhea and influenza are not contagious but only infectious
11. Which of the following statements are true?
a. All communicable diseases are infectious and contagious.
b. All contagious diseases are infectious but not all infectious are contagious.
c. Communicable diseases are all contagious but not infectious.
d. Infectious diseases are contagious and also communicable.
12. An organism that is capable of invading and multiplying in the body of the host:
a. Causative agent
b. Reservoir
c. Bacteria
d. Carrier
13. The infecting ability of a microorganism depends on its degree of:
a. Pathogenecity
b. Communicability
c. Teratogenecity
d. Epidemiology
14. Shigella species only requires 10 microorganisms to cause infection while Salmonella must have 1,000 bacteria to initiate disease. This
property of microorganism is known as:
a. Viability
b. Toxigenecity
c. Virulence
d. Invasiveness
15. (Refer to number 16) Also, this directly proportional relationship of number and infection refers to what property of the causative agent?
a. Dose
b. Antigenicity
c. Specificity
d. Mode of action
16. A person whose medical history and symptoms suggest that he may now have or be developing some communicable disease is known as:
a. Patient
b. Carrier
c. Contact
d. Suspect
17. A special type of toxin found on the cell wall of the gram negative bacteria that causes sepsis especially when they lyse themselves
(suicide bomber):
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin
18. The type of exotoxin that is released in the GI tract that stimulates the vomiting center of the body and exhibits its harmful effect by the
inflammation of the intestinal tract:
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin
,19. A non cellular microorganism that contains a nucleus of DNA and/or RNA with a surrounding protein coat and are self-limiting. Also
known as the ultimate parasite:
a. Virus
b. Protozoa
c. Amoeba
d. Bacteria
20. Beds in the hospital are arranged in such a way that droplet transmission of microorganism can be prevented. This is done by:
a. Letting a single bed occupy a single room
b. Arranging the bed not facing the door or window
c. Positioning the bed 1 meter away from each other
d. Placing blinders in each patient, if possible.
21. When an infective microorganism escaping from the reservoir is suspended in the air and is carried through air current in the form of
droplet nuclei, the mode of transmission is:
a. Airborne
b. Droplet
c. Pressurized
d. Fomites
22. Which of the following is considered a fomite?
a. Staphylococcus aureus carrier
b. Urinals
c. Mosquito
d. Hands
23. A vector that transmits a microorganism by harboring it to its system and serves as its reservoir:
a. Mechanical vector
b. Biological vector
c. Accidental host
d. Intermediate vector
24. Which of the following will most likely acquire an infectious disease?
a. A 30 year old male who is alcoholic
b. A pregnant mother
c. A healthy sexual worker
d. A patient who is discharged from the hospital
25. The pattern of infection where the pathognomonic signs of a specific disease is present is:
a. Incubation period
b. Prodromal period
c. Invasion/ fastigium period
d. Convalescent period
26. Cholera, tetanus, and typhoid fever occurs intermittently or on and off in different parts of the country. This is pattern of disease
occurrence is known as:
a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Sporadic
d. Pandemic
27. A newly emerged strain of E. Coli that killed hundreds of hamburger eaters in the United States:
a. Sin Nombre Coli
b. E. coli O157:H7
c. Colicollus coli
d. Legionairre’s coli
, 28. Level of prevention focused on the early sick and aimed to detect diseases at its early state:
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quarternary
29. Which of the following is a primary level of disease prevention:
a. Mass screening
b. Contact tracing
c. Hand washing
d. Prompt treatment
30. Health education is prevents communicable diseases through IEC. Which of the following refers to the part of IEC that involves behavioral
change?
a. Information
b. Education
c. Communication
d. Integration
31. An information learned and caused a change in behavior of the client will only be effective if:
a. Able to apply everyday
b. If shared with other members of the family or even the society
c. If kept and considered as own
d. Written and well documented
32. Which of the following vaccine is introduced intradermally at right deltoid region?
a. BCG
b. DPT
c. Measles
d. Hep B
33. Which of the following vaccine is very sensitive from heat and should be stored at (-15 C to -25C) at the freezer?
a. Measles
b. DPT
c. BCG
d. Hep B
34. Hep B is given for three doses and the schedule is:
a. At birth, 6 weeks after the 1st dose and 8 weeks after the 2nd dose
b. At six months with interval of 4 weeks in each doses
c. At birth with 4 weeks interval
d. Given together with DPT and OPV
35. What will the nurse do if a child developed convulsion within 24 hours after giving DPT?
a. Give TSB and paracetamol, as ordered.
b. Do not give the second dose of DPT.
c. Give the child DTaP instead.
d. The child must begin with DT only on the second dose because the child reacted negatively and developed pertussis with the
first dose.
36. Which of the following is true about Tetanus Toxoid?
a. It is given for mothers for two doses with one month interval with booster doses every next pregnancy.
b. It is given with 0.05 cc, IM at deltoid region
c. It provides 99% immunity at the third dose
d. Infant is protected from tetanus for 10 years if TT2 is given
transmission:
a. Contagious disease
b. Communicable disease
c. Infectious disease
d. Iatrogenic disease
2. A clinically manifest disease of a man or animal resulting from an infection:
a. Contagious disease
b. Communicable disease
c. Infectious disease
d. Iatrogenic disease
3. Presence of classical sings and symptoms that are highly specific to a certain disease is known as:
a. Tell tall signs
b. Pathognomonic sign
c. Distinctive sign
d. Fastigium sign
4. When will you consider that an infection is acquired in the hospital and called as nosocomial?
a. When infection occurred upon admission
b. When infection is acquired before discharge
c. When infection is validated by the laboratory of the hospital
d. When the patient is within 14 days of hospital stay
5. A infection that is completely manifested by signs and symptoms:
a. Opportunistic infection
b. True infection
c. Communicable infection
d. Contagious infection
6. Which of the following is the main cause of nosocomial infection?
a. Surgical wound infection
b. Sepsis
c. Urinary tract infection
d. Respiratory tract infection
7. Which of the following causative agent are able to live in a non-nutritive environment and is easily transmitted in the hospital?
a. S. aureus
b. P. aeruginosa
c. E. Coli
d. H. influenza
8. The infection brought by normal biota of the body with low degree of virulence but may take advantage when the body is
immunocompromised:
a. Opportunistic infection
b. Nosocomial infection
c. True infection
d. Parasitic infection
9. When a disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another, such infection is:
a. Communicable
b. Infectious
c. Contagious
d. Virulent
10. What is the difference between gonorrhea and influenza when taking into consideration being infectious and contagious?
, a. Gonorrhea is infectious and influenza is contagious
b. Influenza is infectious and gonorrhea is contagious
c. Both are contagious and infectious
d. Gonorrhea and influenza are not contagious but only infectious
11. Which of the following statements are true?
a. All communicable diseases are infectious and contagious.
b. All contagious diseases are infectious but not all infectious are contagious.
c. Communicable diseases are all contagious but not infectious.
d. Infectious diseases are contagious and also communicable.
12. An organism that is capable of invading and multiplying in the body of the host:
a. Causative agent
b. Reservoir
c. Bacteria
d. Carrier
13. The infecting ability of a microorganism depends on its degree of:
a. Pathogenecity
b. Communicability
c. Teratogenecity
d. Epidemiology
14. Shigella species only requires 10 microorganisms to cause infection while Salmonella must have 1,000 bacteria to initiate disease. This
property of microorganism is known as:
a. Viability
b. Toxigenecity
c. Virulence
d. Invasiveness
15. (Refer to number 16) Also, this directly proportional relationship of number and infection refers to what property of the causative agent?
a. Dose
b. Antigenicity
c. Specificity
d. Mode of action
16. A person whose medical history and symptoms suggest that he may now have or be developing some communicable disease is known as:
a. Patient
b. Carrier
c. Contact
d. Suspect
17. A special type of toxin found on the cell wall of the gram negative bacteria that causes sepsis especially when they lyse themselves
(suicide bomber):
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin
18. The type of exotoxin that is released in the GI tract that stimulates the vomiting center of the body and exhibits its harmful effect by the
inflammation of the intestinal tract:
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin
,19. A non cellular microorganism that contains a nucleus of DNA and/or RNA with a surrounding protein coat and are self-limiting. Also
known as the ultimate parasite:
a. Virus
b. Protozoa
c. Amoeba
d. Bacteria
20. Beds in the hospital are arranged in such a way that droplet transmission of microorganism can be prevented. This is done by:
a. Letting a single bed occupy a single room
b. Arranging the bed not facing the door or window
c. Positioning the bed 1 meter away from each other
d. Placing blinders in each patient, if possible.
21. When an infective microorganism escaping from the reservoir is suspended in the air and is carried through air current in the form of
droplet nuclei, the mode of transmission is:
a. Airborne
b. Droplet
c. Pressurized
d. Fomites
22. Which of the following is considered a fomite?
a. Staphylococcus aureus carrier
b. Urinals
c. Mosquito
d. Hands
23. A vector that transmits a microorganism by harboring it to its system and serves as its reservoir:
a. Mechanical vector
b. Biological vector
c. Accidental host
d. Intermediate vector
24. Which of the following will most likely acquire an infectious disease?
a. A 30 year old male who is alcoholic
b. A pregnant mother
c. A healthy sexual worker
d. A patient who is discharged from the hospital
25. The pattern of infection where the pathognomonic signs of a specific disease is present is:
a. Incubation period
b. Prodromal period
c. Invasion/ fastigium period
d. Convalescent period
26. Cholera, tetanus, and typhoid fever occurs intermittently or on and off in different parts of the country. This is pattern of disease
occurrence is known as:
a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Sporadic
d. Pandemic
27. A newly emerged strain of E. Coli that killed hundreds of hamburger eaters in the United States:
a. Sin Nombre Coli
b. E. coli O157:H7
c. Colicollus coli
d. Legionairre’s coli
, 28. Level of prevention focused on the early sick and aimed to detect diseases at its early state:
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quarternary
29. Which of the following is a primary level of disease prevention:
a. Mass screening
b. Contact tracing
c. Hand washing
d. Prompt treatment
30. Health education is prevents communicable diseases through IEC. Which of the following refers to the part of IEC that involves behavioral
change?
a. Information
b. Education
c. Communication
d. Integration
31. An information learned and caused a change in behavior of the client will only be effective if:
a. Able to apply everyday
b. If shared with other members of the family or even the society
c. If kept and considered as own
d. Written and well documented
32. Which of the following vaccine is introduced intradermally at right deltoid region?
a. BCG
b. DPT
c. Measles
d. Hep B
33. Which of the following vaccine is very sensitive from heat and should be stored at (-15 C to -25C) at the freezer?
a. Measles
b. DPT
c. BCG
d. Hep B
34. Hep B is given for three doses and the schedule is:
a. At birth, 6 weeks after the 1st dose and 8 weeks after the 2nd dose
b. At six months with interval of 4 weeks in each doses
c. At birth with 4 weeks interval
d. Given together with DPT and OPV
35. What will the nurse do if a child developed convulsion within 24 hours after giving DPT?
a. Give TSB and paracetamol, as ordered.
b. Do not give the second dose of DPT.
c. Give the child DTaP instead.
d. The child must begin with DT only on the second dose because the child reacted negatively and developed pertussis with the
first dose.
36. Which of the following is true about Tetanus Toxoid?
a. It is given for mothers for two doses with one month interval with booster doses every next pregnancy.
b. It is given with 0.05 cc, IM at deltoid region
c. It provides 99% immunity at the third dose
d. Infant is protected from tetanus for 10 years if TT2 is given
