TEST BANK Radiographic Pathology for Technologists 6th Edition by Nina Kowalczyk

TEST BANK Radiographic Pathology for Technologists 6th Edition by Nina KowalczykTable of Contents Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathology .................................................................................................... 1 Chapter 2: Skeletal System .................................................................................................................. 6 Chapter 3: Respiratory System .......................................................................................................... 12 Chapter 4: Cardiovascular System ..................................................................................................... 17 Chapter 5: Abdomen and Gastrointestinal System ............................................................................. 21 Chapter 6: Hepatobiliary System ........................................................................................................ 25 Chapter 7: Urinary System ................................................................................................................. 30 Chapter 8: Central Nervous System ................................................................................................... 35 Chapter 9: Hemopoietic System......................................................................................................... 39 Chapter 10: Reproductive System ..................................................................................................... 43 Chapter 11: Endocrine System ......................................................................................................... 47 Chapter 12: Traumatic Disease .......................................................................................................... 51 Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The sequence of events producing cellular changes following injury best defines: a. manifestations. b. pathogenesis. c. sign. d. symptom. ANS: B REF: p. 2 2. An abnormal disturbance of the function and structure of the human body following injury refers to: a. disease. b. etiology. c. manifestations. d. pathogenesis. ANS: A REF: p. 2 3. The study of the cause of disease is termed: a. disease. b. etiology. c. pathogenesis. d. prognosis. ANS: B REF: p. 2 4. Common agents that cause disease include: 1. bacteria. 2. chemicals. 3. heat. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only 1 | P a g ec. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D REF: p. 2 5. A syndrome is best defined as: a. a genetic abnormality of a single protein. b. an adverse response to medical treatment. c. the patient’s perception of the disease. d. signs and symptoms that characterize a specific abnormal disturbance. ANS: D REF: p. 2 6. An adverse response to medical treatment itself is termed: a. autoimmune. b. iatrogenic. c. idiopathic. d. nosocomial. ANS: B REF: p. 3 7. Prognosis refers to: a. diseases usually having a quick onset. b. the name of the particular disease. c. the predicted course and outcome of the disease. d. the structure of cells or tissue. ANS: C REF: p. 3 8. Diseases that generally require a decrease in the exposure technique are considered: a. destructive. b. lytic. c. subtractive. d. all of the above. ANS: D REF: p. 3 9. The investigation of disease occurring in large groups best defines: a. epidemiology. b. incidence. c. prevalence. d. all of the above. ANS: A REF: p. 3 10. Data regarding the number of deaths caused by a particular disease averaged over a population are collected and reported by the: a. American College of Radiology. b. Centers for Disease Control. c. Food and Drug Administration. d. National Center for Health Statistics. ANS: D 2 | P a g e REF: p. 211. Which of the following are leading causes of death in the United States for adults aged 45 years and greater? 1. Heart disease 2. Malignant neoplasm 3. Polycystic kidney disease a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A REF: p. 4 12. In 2010, health spending accounted for approximately domestic product. a. 12 b. 17 c. 21 d. 33 ANS: B REF: p. 7 13. Each cell in the human body, except the reproductive cells, contains autosomal chromosomes and chromosomes. a. 11; 1 b. 11; 2 c. 22; 1 d. 22; 2 ANS: D REF: p. 8 14. The types of gene maps that grew out of the identification of DNA sequences include maps. 1. genetic 2. SNP 3. physical a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B REF: p. 8 15. The identification of common DNA pattern sequences and common patterns of genetic variations of single DNA bases resulted in: a. the Genome Project. b. genetic linkage maps. c. haplotype mapping. d. physical mapping. ANS: C REF: p. 8 16. Diseases that are present at birth from genetic or environmental factors are classified as: 3 | P a g e pairs of sex % of the U.S. grossa. congenital. b. degenerative. c. genetic. d. metabolic. ANS: A REF: p. 10 17. A genetic disorder caused by an abnormality on one of the 22 nonsex chromosomes is considered: a. autosomal. b. dominant. c. recessive. d. sex linked. ANS: A REF: p. 11 18. A protein coat surrounding a genome of either RNA or DNA without an organized cellular structure best describes which type of microorganism? a. Bacteria b. Fungi c. Virus d. All of the above ANS: C REF: p. 11 19. The ease with which a pathogenic organism can overcome the body’s defenses best describes: a. etiology. b. infection. c. pathogenesis. d. virulence. ANS: D REF: p. 12 20. Diseases caused by the disturbance of normal physiologic function are classified as: a. degenerative. b. metabolic. c. neoplastic. d. traumatic. ANS: B REF: p. 13 21. The lymph node into which the primary neoplasm drains during metastasis is termed the node. a. primary b. sentinel c. metastatic d. neoplastic ANS: B REF: p. 14 22. The spread of cancerous cells into surrounding tissue by virtue of the close proximity best describes: a. lymphatic spread. 4 | P a g eb. hematogenous spread. c. invasion. d. oncogenesis. ANS: C REF: p. 16 23. Cancer originating in epithelial tissue is termed: a. carcinoma. b. leukemia. c. lymphoma. d. sarcoma. ANS: A REF: p. 16 24. In classification of a tumor using the TNM system, the T refers to the: a. size of the primary tumor. b. lymph node involvement. c. distant metastasis. d. histologic grading of the primary tumor. ANS: A REF: p. 16 25. Which of the following imaging modalities are used in the staging of neoplastic tumors? 1. CT 2. PET 3. MRI a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D REF: p. 16 26. In the treatment of neoplastic disease, interferons and interleukins are associated with: a. chemotherapy. b. radiation therapy. c. hormone therapy. d. immunotherapy. ANS: D MATCHING Altered Cell Biology Directions: Match the type of altered cell biology with the correct description. a. A generalized decrease in cell size b. A generalized increase in cell size c. An increase in the number of cells in tissue as a result of excessive proliferation d. Conversion of one cell type into another cell type e. Abnormal changes of mature cells 1. Hypertrophy 2. Atrophy 3. Metaplasia 5 | P a g e REF: p. 164. Hyperplasia 5. Dysplasia 1. ANS: B 2. ANS: A 3. ANS: D 4. ANS: C 5. ANS: E REF: p. 9 REF: p. 9 REF: p. 10 REF: p. 9 REF: p. 10 TRUE/FALSE 1. A tumor consisting of differentiated cells has a higher probability for malignancy. ANS: F REF: p. 14 2. A histologic evaluation of a primary cancer that is graded as an “I” is considered well differentiated. ANS: T REF: p. 16 Chapter 2: Skeletal System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which primary bone tumor should be investigated with the utilization of CT? a. Osteosarcoma b. Osteoid osteoma c. Chondrosarcoma d. Ewing sarcoma ANS: B REF: p. 48 2. A patient presents to his physician with anterior shoulder pain for several months. He has had no recent injury and there is no relief with NSAIDs, ice, heat, and gentle range-of-motion exercises. Radiographs of the shoulder demonstrate small microcalcifications of the subacromial space. What is the differential diagnosis? a. Rotator cuff tear b. Labral tear c. Calcific tendinitis d. Anterior shoulder dislocation ANS: C REF: p. 39 3. Which of the following characteristics does NOT assist in the differentiation between a primary metastatic bone lesion as compared to a secondary metastatic bone lesion? a. Soft tissue mass b. Periosteal reaction c. Length of lesion d. Calcification of blood vessels ANS: D REF: p. 54 4. What skeletal pathology presents radiographically with a “soap bubble” appearance? a. Giant cell tumor 6 | P a g eb. Ewing sarcoma c. Osteoid osteoma d. Osteoblastoma ANS: A REF: p. 50 5. Osteopetrosis requires what type of technical factor change? a. Increase b. Decrease c. No change ANS: A REF: p. 27 6. Tenosynovitis requires what type of technical factor change? a. Increase b. Decrease c. No change ANS: C REF: p. 39 7. Which neoplasm involves a nidus? a. Osteoid osteoma b. Osteoblastoma c. Osteosarcoma d. Paget disease ANS: A REF: p. 48 8. Which disease is congenital? a. Pott disease b. Osteoporosis c. Paget disease d. Osteogenesis imperfecta ANS: D REF: p. 24 9. Spondylolysis is a result of a cleft or defect in the vertebral: a. pedicle. b. lamina. c. spinous process. d. pars interarticularis. ANS: D REF: p. 42 10. Diploë is specific to cancellous bone located in what anatomic structure? a. Femur b. Humerus c. Sternum d. Skull ANS: D REF: p. 20 11. A 15-year-old male patient presents for a right knee series after sustaining a varus injury while playing football. AP, lateral, and both oblique radiographs of the knee demonstrate an 7 | P a g eavulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau (Segond fracture). What additional imaging modality would be best utilized in the diagnosis for this patient? a. CT b. Knee arthrography c. MRI d. Nuclear medicine ANS: C REF: p. 23 12. Heberden nodes and Bouchard nodes are associated with what skeletal pathology? a. Osteomyelitis b. Osteoarthritis c. Paget disease d. Pott disease ANS: B REF: p. 38 13. What skeletal pathology could be a contributing factor for a cervical rib? a. Scoliosis b. Spina bifida c. Spondylolisthesis d. Transitional vertebrae ANS: D REF: p. 30 14. Which anatomic structure is NOT a common area for metastasis? a. Pelvis b. Carpals c. Skull d. Bony thorax ANS: B REF: p. 53 15. “Brittle bone” disease is also known as: a. achondroplasia. b. DDH. c. osteogenesis imperfecta. d. osteopetrosis. ANS: C REF: p. 24 16. Congenital clubfoot is also known as: a. DDH. b. syndactyly. c. fibrous dysplasia. d. talipes. ANS: D REF: p. 28 17. The most common form of arthritis is: a. osteoarthritis. b. gouty arthritis. c. psoriatic arthritis. d. rheumatoid arthritis. 8 | P a g eANS: A REF: p. 37 18. Marie-Strümpell disease or “bamboo spine” is a symptom of the pathology known as: a. ankylosing spondylitis. b. spondylolisthesis. c. spina bifida. d. scoliosis. ANS: A REF: p. 37 19. The forward slippage of one vertebra on another describes the pathology: a. spondylitis. b. spondylolisthesis. c. spondylolysis. d. spina bifida. ANS: B REF: p. 40 20. What type of arthritis has tophi associated with it? a. Osteoarthritis b. Gouty arthritis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Rheumatoid arthritis ANS: B REF: p. 39 21. What imaging modality demonstrates both simultaneous evaluation of bone and soft tissues with quantitative metabolic data of osteosarcomas? a. CT b. Nuclear medicine bone scan c. Sonography d. PET scan ANS: D REF: p. 51 22. Tuberculosis of the spine is commonly referred to as: a. Kienbock disease. b. Reiter syndrome. c. Apert syndrome. d. Pott disease. ANS: D REF: p. 33 23. The imaging modality that would best demonstrate osteomyelitis is: a. nuclear medicine. b. radiography. c. CT. d. sonography. ANS: A REF: p. 32 24. One of the most common areas for metastasis for osteosarcomas is to the: a. brain. 9 | P a g eb. breast. c. lung. d. colon. ANS: C REF: p. 51 25. A 30-year-old male presents with swelling and redness on his left knee. He states that he lays carpet and rarely wears knee pads. The orthopedic surgeon decides to aspirate the swollen area and inject it with a corticosteroid. What would be the differential diagnosis? a. Calcific tendinitis b. Tenosynovitis c. Ganglion cyst d. Prepatellar bursitis ANS: D REF: p. 34 26. A malignant tumor composed of atypical cartilage is known as: a. chondrosarcoma. b. osteosarcoma. c. enchondroma. d. osteoid osteoma. ANS: A REF: p. 53 27. What skeletal pathology involves cysts in the metaphysis of long bones in individuals younger than 20 years of age and consists of numerous blood-filled arteriovenous communications? a. Unicameral bone cyst b. Aneurysmal bone cyst c. Ganglion cyst d. Osteoid osteoma ANS: B REF: p. 48 28. What type of aggressive bone-forming neoplasm that is most often located in the bone marrow gives the radiographic appearance of a sunray or sunburst? a. Osteomyelitis b. Osteosarcoma c. Chondrosarcoma d. Multiple myeloma ANS: B REF: p. 24 29. Which syndrome may involve craniosynostosis and syndactyly? a. Pott syndrome b. Reiter syndrome c. Kienbock syndrome d. Alpert syndrome ANS: D REF: p. 50 30. Which of the following congenital skeletal pathologies involves failure of formation of the cranial vault and is not conducive for life? a. Anencephaly 10 | P a g eb. Craniosynostosis c. Encephalopathy d. Osteomyelitis ANS: A REF: p. 28 31. What imaging modality/ies would demonstrate developmental dysplasia of the hip? 1. CT 2. MRI 3. Radiography 4. Sonography a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 3 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 ANS: B REF: p. 31 32. A nuclear medicine bone scan is performed for a diagnosis of osteomyelitis of the right foot. If this procedure is positive, what would the images demonstrate? a. Symmetry of both feet b. Increased uptake on the right foot (hot spot) c. Decreased uptake on the right foot (cold spot) ANS: C REF: p. 28 33. A common radiographic finding with patients suffering from whiplash is: a. narrowed disk spaces. b. loss of lordosis. c. subluxation. d. erosion of vertebral body. ANS: B REF: p. 32 34. The most commonly inherited disorder affecting the skeletal system is: a. enchondroma. b. osteogenesis imperfecta. c. achondroplasia. d. syndactyly. ANS: C REF: p. 41 35. A 65-year-old female presents with bilateral knee pain and no history of injury. What radiographic procedure should be obtained initially? a. Bilateral weight-bearing knee radiographs b. CT of both knees c. Arthrography of both knees d. MRI of both knees ANS: A REF: p. 25 36. A 75-year-old patient with weight-bearing AP and lateral knee radiographs of the left knee demonstrates a decreased medial joint compartment and osteophyte formation on the medial femoral condyle. What would be the initial diagnosis? 11 | P a g ea. Ewing sarcoma b. Osteoarthritis c. Reiter syndrome d. Osteomyelitis ANS: B REF: p. 46 37. The primary site of ossification is the: a. epiphysis. b. metaphysis. c. diaphysis. d. epiphyseal plate. ANS: C REF: p. 37 TRUE/FALSE 1. The staging systems used for both benign and malignant skeletal lesions are identical. ANS: T REF: p. 21 Chapter 3: Respiratory System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following terms refers to the gas exchange between the respiratory and circulatory systems? a. Aspiration b. Diffusion c. Inhalation d. Ventilation ANS: B REF: p. 59 2. Which of the following body structures enclose the thoracic cavity? 1. Ribs 2. Sternum 3. Thoracic vertebrae a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D REF: p. 63 3. The American College of Radiology suggests that routine mobile chest radiographs are only indicated for patients: 1. with acute cardiopulmonary conditions. 2. in the intensive care unit. 3. who are on a mechanical ventilator. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 12 | P a g eANS: B REF: p. 66 4. The current standard of care when a pulmonary embolus is suspected is a: a. PA and lateral chest radiograph. b. thoracic computed tomographic angiogram. c. nuclear medicine ventilation and perfusion scan. d. thoracic MRI. ANS: B REF: p. 67 5. Low oxygen levels within the arterial blood and resulting from a failure of the gas exchange function best describes: a. hypercapnia. b. hypoxemia. c. CPAP. d. PPV. ANS: B REF: p. 74 6. Cystic fibrosis is classified as a(n) a. genetic. b. inflammatory. c. degenerative. d. neoplastic. ANS: A REF: p. 75 7. The incomplete maturation of the type II alveolar cells within the surfactant-producing system causes unstable alveoli resulting in: a. hyaline membrane disease. b. pneumonia. c. respiratory distress syndrome. d. more than one of the above. ANS: D REF: p. 76 8. Bacteria commonly responsible for typical pneumonia include: 1. Staphylococcus aureus. 2. parainfluenza. 3. H. influenza. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B REF: p. 77 9. The most common lethal nosocomial infection in the United States is: a. bronchiectasis. b. COPD. c. pleurisy. d. pneumonia. 13 | P a g e disease.ANS: D REF: p. 77 10. A permanent, abnormal dilatation of one or more large bronchi as a result of destruction of the elastic and muscular components of the bronchial wall best describes: a. bronchiectasis. b. COPD. c. emphysema. d. pleurisy. ANS: A REF: p. 79 11. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may be caused by: a. chronic obstructive bronchitis. b. emphysema. c. both a and b. ANS: C REF: p. 82 12. Pneumoconioses result from inhalation of foreign substances and may include: a. anthracosis. b. asbestosis. c. silicosis. d. all of the above. ANS: D REF: p. 84 13. Patients presenting with a lung abscess often demonstrate which of the following clinical manifestations? 1. Fever 2. Cough 3. Expectoration of pus a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D REF: p. 87 14. Pleural effusion is best described as: a. excess fluid collects in the pleural cavity. b. inflammation of the pleura. c. a cavity that is radiographically visible on a chest image. d. more than one of the above. ANS: A REF: p. 87 15. Which of the pathologies listed below is the most common fatal primary malignancy in the United States, accounting for over 90% of all lung tumors? a. Bronchial carcinoid tumors b. Bronchogenic carcinoma c. Hematogenous metastatic lung disease d. Lymphogenous metastasis lung disease ANS: B 14 | P a g e REF: p. 9116. Which of the following pathologies of the respiratory system are classified as additive pathologies? 1. Cystic fibrosis 2. Emphysema 3. Pleural effusion a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B REF: p. 94 17. Chest radiography is the imaging modality of choice for the evaluation of: 1. bronchial adenoma. 2. hyaline membrane disease. 3. pneumoconiosis. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C REF: p. 94 18. Fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) positron emission tomography is the imaging modality of choice for: 1. COPD. 2. bronchogenic carcinoma. 3. metastatic lung disease. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C REF: p. 95 19. High-resolution computed tomography is the imaging modality of choice in cases of suspected: a. bronchiectasis. b. cystic fibrosis. c. fungal pneumonia. d. respiratory distress syndrome. ANS: A REF: p. 80 20. Sinusitis is considered a(n) a. additive b. subtractive c. none of the above ANS: A REF: p. 95 21. Pleurisy is considered a(n) 15 | P a g e pathologic condition. pathologic condition.a. additive b. subtractive c. none of the above ANS: C REF: p. 95 22. A disruption in the esophagus or airway may result in: a. hemothorax. b. mediastinal emphysema. c. pectus excavatum. d. Legionnaires’ disease. ANS: B REF: p. 65 23. Inflammatory diseases of the respiratory system include: a. hyaline membrane disease. b. mycoplasma pneumonia. c. subcutaneous emphysema. d. bronchial adenoma. ANS: B REF: p. 78 24. The upper respiratory system includes the: 1. larynx. 2. pharynx. 3. trachea. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A TRUE/FALSE 1. On a normal PA chest radiograph, the right hemidiaphragm appears higher than the left hemidiaphragm. ANS: T REF: p. 61 2. M. tuberculosis is captured by macrophages within the alveoli and creates a cell- mediated immune response that infiltrates the lymph nodes. ANS: T REF: p. 80 3. Early pulmonary tuberculosis is always symptomatic. ANS: F REF: p. 80 4. Coccidioidomycosis is a systemic, fungal infection of the lungs particularly endemic to the Ohio, Missouri, and Mississippi River valleys. ANS: F REF: p. 86 5. Small cell carcinoma has a much higher mortality rate than other bronchogenic cancers. 16 | P a g e REF: p. 59ANS: T REF: p. 91 6. Lateral decubitus chest radiographs can better detect smaller amounts of fluid in the pleural space than an erect lateral chest radiograph. ANS: T REF: p. 62 7. The posterior mediastinum contains the heart and great vessels, esophagus, and trachea. ANS: F REF: p. 59 8. The maxillary and ethmoid sinuses are the only paranasal sinuses present at birth. ANS: T REF: p. 59 MATCHING Medical Devices Directions: Match the following medical devices with the correct descriptions. a. Chest tube b. Endotracheal tube c. CVP lines d. Pulmonary artery catheter e. Access catheter 1. A large plastic tube inserted through the patient’s nose or mouth into the trachea to manage the patient’s airway 2. A large plastic tube inserted through the chest wall between the ribs to allow drainage of fluid or air 3. A multilumen catheter that serves to evaluate cardiac function 4. A catheter inserted for an alternative injection site or to allow for infusion of massive volumes of fluids 5. Catheters placed to allow multiple tapping for injection of chemotherapeutic agents 1. ANS: B REF: p. 70 2. ANS: A 3. ANS: D 4. ANS: C 5. ANS: E REF: p. 71 REF: p. 72 REF: p. 71 REF: p. 72 Chapter 4: Cardiovascular System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The innermost tissue layer of the heart is the: a. epicardium. b. myocardium. c. pericardium. d. endocardium. ANS: D REF: p. 99 2. Oxygenated blood is returned to the heart via the: a. pulmonary arteries. b. superior vena cavae. 17 | P a g ec. pulmonary veins. d. aorta. ANS: C REF: p. 99 3. The mitral valve is also known as the a. bicuspid b. semilunar c. aortic d. tricuspid ANS: A REF: p. 119 4. What is the name of the internal tubular structure of a blood vessel? a. Intima b. Lumen c. Adventitia d. Endocardium ANS: B REF: p. 100 5. How many posterior ribs should be visible on a chest radiograph? a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12 ANS: C REF: p. 101 6. An enlarged heart is known as: a. ischemia. b. cor pulmonale. c. cardiomegaly. d. tetralogy of Fallot. ANS: C REF: p. 102 7. Doppler sonography is used to image which of the following conditions? 1. Deep vein thrombosis 2. Carotid stenosis 3. Lower extremity arterial stenosis a. 1 and 3 b. 2 only c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D REF: p. 104 8. The contraction of the heart is known as: a. diastole. b. systole. c. peristole. d. myostol. ANS: B 18 | P a g e REF: p. 100 valve.9. The single most frequent cause of death in the United States is: a. congestive heart failure. b. coronary artery disease. c. valvular heart disease. d. ventricular septal defects. ANS: B REF: p. 124 10. A CT calcium score best demonstrates: a. chambers of the heart. b. soft plaque. c. pulmonary arteries. d. hard plaque. ANS: D REF: p. 106 11. A decrease in tissue blood supply is termed: a. atheroma. b. ischemia. c. infarction. d. necrosis. ANS: B REF: p. 123 12. What type of aneurysm results when the intima tears and allows blood to flow within the vessel wall? a. Dissecting b. Fusiform c. Saccular ANS: A REF: p. 126 13. A blood clot is known as a(n): a. infarct. b. aneurysm. c. thrombus. d. adventitia. ANS: C REF: p. 129 14. A procedure used to break up blood clots is known as a(n): a. embolization. b. thrombolysis. c. angioplasty. d. TIPSS. ANS: B REF: p. 110 15. What is the opening between the atria and septum present at birth? a. Ductus arteriosus b. Cor pulmonale c. Tetralogy of Fallot 19 | P a g ed. Foramen ovale ANS: D REF: p. 112 16. The most common cause of chronic valve disease of the heart is: a. coronary artery disease. b. rheumatic fever. c. congestive heart failure. d. ventricular septal defect. ANS: B REF: p. 119 17. Which of the following imaging modalities provides the most information in terms of mitral valve function? a. CT b. MRI c. US d. TEE ANS: D REF: p. 120 18. Congestive heart failure is most commonly caused by: a. high cholesterol. b. aneurysm. c. congenital heart disease. d. hypertension. ANS: D REF: p. 120 19. A pulmonary embolus (PE) is best visualized with: a. a VQ scan. b. a nuclear perfusion scan. c. CT. d. angiography. ANS: C REF: p. 130 20. Venous thrombosis most often affects the a. deep; upper b. deep; lower c. superficial; upper d. superficial; lower ANS: B REF: p. 127 21. Imaging procedures that may be used to demonstrate an abdominal aneurysm include: 1. angiography. 2. CT. 3. sonography. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 20 | P a g e veins of the extremities.ANS: D REF: p. 126 22. Common risk factors for CAD include: 1. cigarette smoking. 2. hypertension. 3. low-fat diet. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A REF: p. 125 23. Clinical signs of a myocardial infarction include: 1. shortness of breath. 2. crushing chest pain. 3. neck pain. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D REF: p. 125 TRUE/FALSE 1. Pulmonary circulation transports blood between the heart and lungs. ANS: T REF: p. 98 2. In chest radiography, a PA view is sufficient to demonstrate all the chambers of the heart. ANS: F REF: p. 98 3. Arteries carry blood away from the heart. ANS: T REF: p. 100 4. MRI is used for imaging of the anatomy, function, and disease of the heart. ANS: T REF: p. 107 5. A Greenfield filter may be placed in the inferior vena cava to prevent blood clots from traveling to the lungs. ANS: T REF: p. 128 Chapter 5: Abdomen and Gastrointestinal System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following are signs/symptoms of esophageal atresia? a. Salivation b. Choking c. Cyanosis d. All of the above 21 | P a g eANS: D REF: p. 151 2. Which of the following is the most common type of bowel atresia? a. Duodenal atresia b. Jejunal atresia c. Ileal atresia d. Colonic atresia ANS: C REF: p. 151 3. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is classified as a(n) a. congenital b. degenerative c. inflammatory d. neurologic ANS: A REF: p. 152 4. When imaging an infant with suspected malrotation, a(n) be performed and is considered the gold standard. a. transabdominal ultrasound b. small bowel follow-through c. upper GI d. contrast-enhanced CT ANS: C REF: p. 155 5. If left untreated, Hirschsprung disease can progress to: a. bacterial overgrowth. b. colonic distention. c. electrolyte imbalances. d. all of the above. ANS: D REF: p. 156 6. In the condition of carbohydrate intolerance, the small bowel lacks enough of the enzyme: a. lactase. b. lipase. c. amylase. d. lactose. ANS: A 7. Currently, REF: p. 157 is the most accurate imaging examination for evaluating patients who do not have a clear clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis. a. abdominal radiography b. computed tomography (CT) c. magnetic resonance enterography (MRE) d. colonoscopy ANS: B REF: p. 166 8. A less common type of hiatal hernia is the a. rolling 22 | P a g e type. examination should condition of the GI system.b. sliding c. paraesophageal d. both a and c ANS: D REF: p. 171 9. Abdominal radiography is of limited value in cases of diverticulitis unless diagnosing for suspected complications of: a. pneumoperitoneum. b. obstruction. c. both a and c. d. none of the above. ANS: C REF: p. 182 10. Colorectal cancers are the a. first b. second c. third d. none of the above ANS: A REF: p. 187 11. Which of the following is currently the standard imaging procedure for staging superficial rectal carcinomas? a. Virtual colonoscopy acquired by computed tomography (CT) b. Magnetic resonance colonography (MRC) c. Digital rectal examination d. Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) ANS: D REF: p. 189 12. Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of ultrasound over other imaging modalities in evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract? a. Ultrasound provides the opportunity to biopsy during the sonographic procedure. b. The examination sensitivity is not highly dependent on the skill of the sonographer. c. Abdominal sonographic investigation is very effective in the obese population. d. All of the above statements are true. ANS: A REF: p. 145 13. Which of the following nuclear medicine procedures is performed to detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori in patients with a suspected gastric ulcer? a. GI bleed scans b. Gastric emptying scans c. Urea breath test d. SPECT gastric imaging ANS: C REF: p. 145 14. Which types of esophageal diverticula are located at the pharyngoesophageal junction at the upper-lateral aspect of the esophagus? 1. Epiphrenic 2. Killian-Jameson 23 | P a g e most common gastrointestinal cancer in the United States.3. Zenker a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C REF: p. 179 15. The “olive sign” is associated with what pathologic process? a. Appendicitis b. Esophageal varices c. Hypertrophied pyloric stenosis d. Leiomyoma ANS: C REF: p. 153 16. Which of the statements are true in reference to a mechanical bowel obstruction? 1. It occurs from a blockage of the bowel lumen. 2. It may be caused by a herniation of the bowel. 3. It may be caused by a lumen-obliterating gastrointestinal tumor. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only