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Examen

PHARMACOLOGY &PHARMACOKINETICS

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Tachyphylaxis is a rapid decrease in drug effectiveness with repeated use. An example is the diminished response to nitroglycerin in angina treatment. CCS drugs (cell-cycle specific) Anticancer drugs that are: -- Phase-specific -- Higher selective toxicity. -- More likely to be in-cycle -- Attack only cells that are actively growing and dividing CCNS drugs (cell-cycle non-specific) -- Anticancer drugs that can sterilize tumor cells regardless of whether they are cycling or resting in G0 Phase -- Less-selective toxicity and cause damage to healthy cells. -- More damage to healthy cells N for non-proliferating, normal cells, _____ drugs are used for recruitment and induce non-proliferating clonogenic fraction to enter into cell cycle CCNS -- Causes increased vulnerability to CCS agents afterwards since cells are actively dividing. Adverse effects of CCS drugs The most rapidly proliferating normal cells are likely to suffer toxicity along with the tumor cells, but the damage is mostly reversible -- Bone marrow resumes production -- Hair regrows, -- gut and oral mucosa recover. Abortion and infertility are irreversible. Broad adverse effects CCNS drugs Cisplastin Side effects: Vomiting, nephrotoxicity Doxorubicin I 3 rubics cubes Side effects: Cardiotoxicity Dexrazoxane: Limits toxicity Vincristine Crest = the periphery Side effects: Peripheral neuropathy Bleomycin Pulmonary fibrosis Surgical debulking A form of selective toxicity, that allows for large portion of tumor cells to re-enter cell cycle and proliferate, thus causing death. Clenogenic fraction (non-growing or non-dividing) are unaffected. Radiation and cell-cycle non-specific cytotoxic drugs are more broad and cause MORE COLLATERAL DAMAGE. Oncolytic viral therapy One that preferentially infects and kills cancer cells. Selectively infects lyses only in primary and metastatic cells of that type (eg multiple myeloma) Multimodal therapy Chemotherapy, radiation, surgery Selective toxicity Selectively eradicate neoplastic cells without damaging host (normal) cells. CCS are more selectively toxic, but they cannot kill clonogenic fraction cells like CCNS agents. CCNS agents are used for recruitment (to induce non-proliferating clonogenic fraction to cycle) CCS+CCNS deplete growth fraction as recruited Clonogenic fraction G0 cells (undividing). Targeted by CCNS drugs Cytotoxic kinetics Cancer cells grow exponentially and cancer chemo uses highest tolerated dose REGARDLESS OF TUMOR SIZE. Rate killed is logarithmic (first-order kinetics) therefore 3-log dose will decrease cancer cell population by 3 orders. The intensity required to reduce a large tumor and a small tumor to half their size is... THE SAME Curative Tries to cure cancer. Toxicity is acceptable Palliative Tries to reduce tumor burden to improve disease-related suffering. Toxicity is unacceptable. Induction (neoadjuvant) phase INITITAL REGIMEN. STEP 1!!! Decrease tumor burden by recruiting clonogenic cells into growth fraction. Occurs prior to tx with other modalities Intensification phase STEP 2!!! Achieve remission by adding more drugs to regimen, increasing dosage, increasing duration. Consolidation Repeated doses of same combination of drugs to maintain remission. Cisplastin, Cyclophosphamide Alkylating agents Covalently cross-link DNA bw and within strands Bleomycin, doxorubicin Antibiotics Intercalation bw base pairs in DNA or RNA METhotrexate (pure meth) AntiMETabolites Blocks synthesis of purine components of nucleic acids ADVERSE EFFECTS: bone marrow suppression and ulcerating mucositis for which leucovorin rescue is used to counteract renal toxicity Vincristine, paclitaxel Mouth and GI tract A patient is in pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Two shocks and 1 dose of epinephrine have been given. Which drug should be given next? A. adenosine 6 mg B. amiodarone 300 mg C. epinephrine 3 mg D. lidocaine 0.5 mg/kg 2 Which intervention is most appropriate for the treatment of a patient in asystole? A. atropine B. defibrillation C. epinephrine D. transcutaneous pacing 3 You are caring for a 66-year-old man with a history of a large intracerebral hemorrhage 2 months ago. He is being evaluated for another acute stroke. The CT scan is negative for hemorrhage. The patient is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min, and an IV has been established. His blood pressure is 180/100 mm Hg. Which drug do you anticipate giving to this patient? A. aspirin B. glucose (D50) C. nicardipine D. rtPA 4 a 57 year-old-woman has palpitations, chest discomfort, and tachycardia. The monitor show a regular wide-complex QRS at a rate of 180/min. she becomes diaphoretic, and her blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg. Which action do you take next? A. establish IV access B. obtain a 12-lead ECG C. perform electrical cardioversion D. seek expert consultation Don't know? Terms in this set (20) Original You are caring for a 66-year-old man with a history of a large intracerebral hemorrhage 2 months ago. He is being evaluated for another acute stroke. The CT scan is negative for hemorrhage. The patient is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min, and an IV has been established. His blood pressure is 180/100 mm Hg. Which drug do you anticipate giving to this patient? A. aspirin B. glucose (D50) C. nicardipine D. rtPA A. aspirin A patient with sinus bradycardia and a heart rate of 42/min has diaphoresis and a blood pressure of 80/60 mm Hg. What is the initial dose of atropine? A. 0.1 mg B. 0.5 mg C. 1 mg D. 3 mg B. 0.5 mg A patient with STEMI has ongoing chest discomfort. Heparin 4000 units IV bolus and a heparin infusion of 1000 unit per hour are being administered. The patient did not take aspirin because he has a history of gastritis, which was treated 5 years ago. What is your next action? A. give aspirin 160 to 325 mg to chew B. give clopidogrel 300 mg orally C. give enteric-coated aspirin 75 mg orally D. give enteric-coated aspirin 325 mg rectally A. give aspirin 160 to 325 mg to chew A patient is in pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Two shocks and 1 dose of epinephrine have been given. Which drug should be given next? A. adenosine 6 mg B. amiodarone 300 mg C. epinephrine 3 mg D. lidocaine 0.5 mg/kg B. amiodarone 300 mg What is the indication for the us of magnesium in cardiac arrest? A. ventricular tachycardia associated with a normal QT interval B. shock-refractory monomorphic ventricular tachycardia C. pulseless ventricular tachycardia-associated torsades de pointes D. shock-refractory ventricular fibrillation C. pulseless ventricular tachycardia-associated torsades de pointes In which situation does bradycardia require treatment? A. 12-lead ECG show

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PHARMACOLOGY &PHARMACOKINETICS QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS A+
What is pharmacokinetics, and what are its main components?

Pharmacokinetics is the study of how a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted by the
body. The main components are absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (ADME).

Define bioavailability and its significance in pharmacology.

Bioavailability refers to the proportion of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation in its active form
after administration. It is significant because it determines the drug's efficacy.

What factors affect the absorption of a drug?

Factors affecting absorption include the drug’s formulation, solubility, route of administration, pH of the
environment, blood flow to the absorption site, and presence of food or other substances.

How does protein binding of drugs influence their distribution in the body?

Protein binding affects drug distribution by limiting the free (active) drug concentration in plasma. Drugs
bound to plasma proteins like albumin are pharmacologically inactive until they are released.

Explain the role of the liver in drug metabolism.

The liver metabolizes drugs primarily through phase I (oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis) and phase II
(conjugation) reactions. This process makes drugs more water-soluble for excretion.

What is the first-pass effect, and how does it influence drug efficacy?

The first-pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug in the liver after oral administration, before it
reaches systemic circulation. This can reduce the drug’s bioavailability and efficacy.

Differentiate between pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics.

Pharmacodynamics studies the biological and physiological effects of drugs and their mechanisms of
action, whereas pharmacokinetics focuses on the drug’s movement through the body (ADME).

What is a half-life in pharmacology, and why is it important?

The half-life is the time it takes for the plasma concentration of a drug to reduce by half. It is important
for determining dosing intervals and duration of action.

How do drugs cross cell membranes?

Drugs cross cell membranes by passive diffusion, facilitated diffusion, active transport, or endocytosis.

What are prodrugs, and why are they used?

Prodrugs are inactive compounds that are metabolized into active drugs in the body. They are used to
improve bioavailability, reduce side effects, or target specific tissues.

,What is therapeutic index, and how is it calculated?

The therapeutic index is the ratio of the toxic dose to the effective dose of a drug. It is calculated as
TD50/ED50, where TD50 is the dose causing toxicity in 50% of subjects and ED50 is the dose effective in
50%.

How do enzyme inducers and inhibitors affect drug metabolism?

Enzyme inducers increase the activity of metabolic enzymes, leading to faster drug metabolism and
reduced drug levels. Enzyme inhibitors decrease enzyme activity, slowing metabolism and increasing
drug levels.

What is the difference between agonists and antagonists?

Agonists activate receptors to produce a physiological response, while antagonists bind to receptors and
block or dampen the response.

Define drug clearance and its significance.

Drug clearance is the volume of plasma from which a drug is completely removed per unit time. It
determines the drug’s elimination rate and helps in dosing regimen design.

What is the role of the kidneys in drug excretion?

The kidneys excrete drugs through glomerular filtration, tubular secretion, and reabsorption. They play a
key role in removing water-soluble drugs and metabolites.

Explain the concept of steady-state concentration.

Steady-state concentration is the point at which the drug’s rate of administration equals its rate of
elimination, leading to a constant plasma concentration.

What is drug tolerance, and what mechanisms contribute to it?

Drug tolerance is the decreased response to a drug over time. Mechanisms include receptor
desensitization, downregulation, and enhanced drug metabolism.

Describe the difference between competitive and non-competitive antagonism.

Competitive antagonists bind reversibly to the same receptor site as the agonist, while non-competitive
antagonists bind to a different site and reduce the maximal effect of the agonist.

What are adverse drug reactions (ADRs), and how are they classified?

ADRs are unwanted or harmful effects of a drug. They are classified as Type A (predictable, dose-
dependent) and Type B (unpredictable, not dose-dependent).

What is drug-drug interaction, and what are its types?

Drug-drug interaction occurs when one drug affects the activity of another. Types include
pharmacokinetic (altering ADME), pharmacodynamic (altering effects), and combined toxicity.

Define pharmacogenomics and its importance.

, Pharmacogenomics is the study of how genetic variations affect drug responses. It helps in personalized
medicine by predicting efficacy and minimizing adverse effects.

What is the difference between a side effect and a toxic effect?

A side effect is a predictable, often mild, secondary effect of a drug, while a toxic effect is a harmful and
potentially severe consequence of drug use, often due to overdose.

How does the pH of urine influence drug excretion?

Urine pH affects drug excretion by altering the ionization of drugs. Weak acids are excreted faster in
alkaline urine, while weak bases are excreted faster in acidic urine.

What are the phases of a clinical drug trial?

The phases are Phase I (safety and dosage), Phase II (efficacy and side effects), Phase III (confirmation
and comparison), and Phase IV (post-marketing surveillance).

Explain the concept of receptor selectivity in pharmacology.

Receptor selectivity refers to a drug’s ability to preferentially bind to specific receptors, reducing off-
target effects and increasing therapeutic efficacy.

What is the mechanism of action of beta-blockers?

Beta-blockers block beta-adrenergic receptors, reducing heart rate, cardiac output, and blood pressure
by inhibiting the effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline.

How does drug solubility influence its pharmacokinetics?

Solubility affects absorption, distribution, and excretion. Lipid-soluble drugs cross cell membranes easily,
while water-soluble drugs are excreted more readily.

What are the main routes of drug administration, and how do they differ?

Routes include oral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, inhalation, and topical. They differ in
absorption rate, bioavailability, and onset of action.

What is the blood-brain barrier, and how does it affect drug delivery?

The blood-brain barrier is a selective barrier that protects the brain by allowing only certain substances
to pass. Lipid-soluble and small molecules cross more easily.

Describe the role of cytochrome P450 enzymes in drug metabolism.

Cytochrome P450 enzymes, primarily in the liver, catalyze phase I reactions, including oxidation and
reduction, which are critical for drug metabolism and detoxification.

What is dose-response relationship, and why is it important?

The dose-response relationship shows the correlation between drug dose and the magnitude of its
effect. It helps in determining the optimal dose for therapeutic efficacy.

Define tachyphylaxis and provide an example.

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Subido en
8 de enero de 2025
Número de páginas
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2024/2025
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