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NR 602 Final Exam Questions With Verified
Answers
What is the ASCCP recommended management for an ASCUS (atypical squamous cells of
undetermined significance) pap result with a positive high-risk HPV 16 co-test in a 26-year-old
woman without a history of abnormal Pap smears? - Answers✔Colposcopy
A well woman visit for an adolescent should include which of the following - Answers✔A
general health history focusing on reproductive and sexual health concerns (mentors,
gynecologic, and pregnancy related) and psychosocial (Family related, peer related, emotional,
and physical as well as related to abuse, drug use and alcohol use) concerns
Physical exam, screening test, and immunizations as indicated by the health history and
gynecologic considerations for an extern only inspection of the genitalia
A Bethesda System Pap smear report that reads LSIL is most consistent with which classification
- Answers✔CIN 1
A single Pap smear reading of ASCUS in a patient negative for HPV infection should have what
as follow-up? - Answers✔Routine screening
A female patient is 35 years old. She has never had an abnormal Pap smear and has had regular
screening since age 18. If she has a normal Pap smear with HPV testing today, when should she
have the next cervical cancer screening - Answers✔Five years
A young sexually active client of the family planning clinic is advised to have a Pap smear. She
has never had a Pap smear before. What should the nurse include in the explanation of this
procedure - Answers✔The Pap smear can detect cancer of the cervix
Lab results on your 26-year-old patient show a negative Pap smear with a positive HPV screen.
Which procedure will be required next - Answers✔Repeat Pap and HPV screen
Which of the following is not part of the criteria for an older woman to see if having any future
Pap test performed - Answers✔Over 55 years of age
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You are evaluating a 17-year-old Emily who presented with amenorrhea and normal secondary
sex characteristics. The purpose of the progesterone challenge is to a certain the presence of -
Answers✔Endogenous estrogen
A 17-year-old female patient presents with amenorrhea for four months she did experience
menarche at age 15 but had not had a menstrual cycle since. On physical examination, it is noted
that she has normal secondary sexual characteristics. The nurse practitioner will consider
progesterone challenge to determine the presence of adequate - Answers✔Endogenous estrogen
A teenage patient presents with amenorrhea and moral secondary sex characteristics. The
progesterone challenge is ordered. the purpose is to determine the presence of -
Answers✔Endogenous estrogen
18-year-old female complaining of secondary amenorrhea. On exam, there is a normal secondary
sex characteristics and normal genitalia. Pregnancy is ruled out what would necessitate further
evaluation - Answers✔Galactorrhea
Primary amenorrhea is best described as - Answers✔Failure to menstrate by 13 years old
A nurse practitioner is participating in a woman's health fair. When educating the woman about
risk factors for breast cancer which of the following statements is incorrect? -
Answers✔Fibrocystic breast disease
When educating women about breast cancer risk factors which statement is incorrect -
Answers✔Fibrocystic breast disease
A woman with lobular carcinoma in situ has a relative risk of developing invasive breast cancer
of - Answers✔8.0
Changes and hormonal regulation during menopause result in the gradual cessation of
menstruation. From which gland is Androstenedione secreted - Answers✔Adrenals
A Pap smear results of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance rule out high-grade
squamous intraepithelial lesion will require which procedure - Answers✔Colposcopy
A Pap smear results of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance require which
procedure next - Answers✔Follow-up Pap smear
A 25-year-old presents with a report of a very tender area just near her introitus and to the left of
her perineum. Very painful sex is how she knew something wasn't right. She showered and when
washing, she felt a P sized painful lump on the left side of her bottom. She tells you she looked at
it with the mirror and it was very small but now it is the size of a ping-pong ball and getting
worse. when you Inspect her genitalia you are amazed at the size and appearance of the lump you
know what appears to be an abscess on the left medial side of the labia minora and there is some
edema extending into the perineum. Your diagnosis for this presentation is -
Answers✔Bartholins cyst