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NCLEX-PN Exam Update 2024 | NCLEX PN Actual Exam 2024 Latest 2024 Questions and Correct Answers Rated A+

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NCLEX-PN Exam Update 2024 | NCLEX PN Actual Exam 2024 Latest 2024 Questions and Correct Answers Rated A+

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NCLEX PN
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NCLEX PN

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NCLEX-PN Exam Update 2024 | NCLEX PN
Actual Exam 2024 Latest 2024 Questions and
Correct Answers Rated A+
A 40-year-old client is admitted to the hospital for alcohol abuse for
the third time in the past 9 months. The health care team recommends
rehabilitative treatment for this client. Why was this treatment
recommended?

1. It's the only option for controlling alcohol consumption.

2. It helps the client identify a new group of friends.

3. It helps the client understand the effects of alcohol on his body.

4. It helps the client identify the relationship between his problems and
alcohol consumption. -ANSWER-Correct Answer: 4

RATIONALES: The purpose of rehabilitative treatment in alcoholism is
to help the client identify the relationship between his problems and
his alcohol consumption. Rehabilitative treatment promotes
abstinence, not limiting or controlling consumption. It isn't intended to
help the client identify a new group of friends or understand the effects
of alcohol on his body.

A 42-year-old client comes to the clinic and is diagnosed with
shingles. Which findings confirm this diagnosis?

Select all that apply:

1. Severe, deep pain around the thorax

,2. Red, nodular skin lesions around the thorax

3. Fever

4. Malaise

5. Diarrhea -ANSWER-Correct Answer: 1,2,3,4

RATIONALES: Shingles, also called herpes zoster, is an acute
unilateral and segmental inflammation of the dorsal root ganglia. It's
caused by infection with the herpes virus varicella-zoster, the same
virus that causes chickenpox. It commonly causes severe, deep pain
along a peripheral nerve on the trunk of the body and red, nodular skin
lesions. Fever and malaise typically accompany these findings.
Diarrhea doesn't commonly occur with shingles.

A 43-year-old man was transferring a load of firewood from his front
driveway to his backyard woodpile at 10 a.m. when he experienced a
heaviness in his chest and dyspnea. He stopped working and rested,
and the pain subsided. At noon, the pain returned. At 1:30 p.m., his
wife took him to the emergency department. Around 2 p.m., the
emergency department physician diagnoses an anterior myocardial
infarction (MI). The nurse should anticipate which immediate order by
the physician?

1. Lidocaine administration

2. Cardiac stress test

3. Serial liver enzyme testing

,4. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) -ANSWER-Correct Answer: 4

RATIONALES: If 6 hours or less have passed since the onset of
symptoms related to MI, thrombolytic therapy is indicated. (The client's
chest pain began 4 hours before diagnosis.) The preferred choice is
tPA. The client doesn't exhibit symptoms that indicate the use of
lidocaine. Stress testing shouldn't be performed during the acute
phase of an MI, but it may be ordered before discharge. Serial cardiac
biomarkers, not serial liver enzymes, would be ordered for this client.

A 76-year-old client is admitted to a long-term care facility with
Alzheimer's-type dementia. The client has been wearing the same
dirty clothes for several days. The nurse contacts the family and asks
them to bring in clean clothing. Which intervention would bestprevent
further regression in the client's personal hygiene?

1. Encouraging the client to perform as much self-care as possible

2. Making the client assume responsibility for physical care

3. Assigning a staff member to take over the client's physical care

4. Accepting the client's desire to go without bathing -ANSWER-
Correct Answer: 1

RATIONALES: Clients with Alzheimer's-type dementia tend to
fluctuate in their capabilities. Encouraging self-care to the extent
possible helps increase the client's orientation and promotes a trusting
relationship with the nurse. Making the client assume responsibility for
physical care is unreasonable. Assigning a staff member to take over
the client's physical care restricts the client's independence. Accepting
the client's desire to go without bathing promotes poor hygiene.

, A client asks the nurse about the rhythm (calendar-basal body
temperature) method of family planning. The nurse explains that this
method involves:

1. chemical barriers that act as spermicidal agents

2. hormones that prevent ovulation.

3. mechanical barriers that prevent sperm from reaching the cervix.

4. determination of the fertile period to identify safe times for sexual
intercourse. -ANSWER-Correct Answer: 4

RATIONALES: The rhythm method of family planning combines basal
body temperature measurement with analysis of cervical mucus
changes to determine the fertile period. This method helps identify
safe and unsafe periods for sexual intercourse. A natural family
planning method, the rhythm method doesn't involve use of chemical
barriers, hormones, or mechanical barriers.

A client asks the nurse, "Do you think I should leave my husband?"
The nurse responds, "You aren't sure if you should leave your
husband?" The nurse is using which therapeutic technique?

1. Restating

2. Reframing

3. Reflecting

4. Offering a general lead -ANSWER-Correct Answer: 3

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Institución
NCLEX PN
Grado
NCLEX PN

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Subido en
11 de noviembre de 2024
Número de páginas
55
Escrito en
2024/2025
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