Blood Bank ASCP EXAM| 452 QUESTIONS| WITH
COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Course
ASCP
Question 1
What is the primary purpose of the crossmatch test in blood transfusion?
A) To determine blood type
B) To detect antibodies in the recipient's serum
C) To ensure compatibility between donor and recipient blood
D) To assess the hemoglobin level
Answer: C) To ensure compatibility between donor and recipient blood
Rationale: The crossmatch test is performed to ensure that the donor's red blood cells are
compatible with the recipient's serum, preventing transfusion reactions.
Question 2
Which blood group system is most clinically significant in blood transfusions?
A) Lewis
B) Kidd
C) Rh
D) MNS
Answer: C) Rh
Rationale: The Rh blood group system is crucial because the presence of the D antigen can
lead to hemolytic transfusion reactions and hemolytic disease of the newborn if mismatched.
Question 3
What does a positive direct Coombs test indicate?
A) Presence of antibodies in the serum
B) Presence of antibodies bound to red blood cells
C) Hemolysis due to a blood group incompatibility
D) Successful blood transfusion
Answer: B) Presence of antibodies bound to red blood cells
Rationale: A positive direct Coombs test indicates that antibodies or complement are bound
to the surface of red blood cells, suggesting conditions like autoimmune hemolytic anemia or
a hemolytic transfusion reaction.
,Question 4
Which of the following blood components is commonly used to treat patients with
thrombocytopenia?
A) Fresh frozen plasma
B) Platelet concentrate
C) Packed red blood cells
D) Cryoprecipitate
Answer: B) Platelet concentrate
Rationale: Platelet concentrate is specifically used to treat patients with low platelet counts
(thrombocytopenia) to help reduce the risk of bleeding.
Question 5
What is the purpose of performing an antibody screen?
A) To confirm blood type
B) To identify unexpected antibodies in the patient’s serum
C) To assess the patient’s iron levels
D) To evaluate clotting factors
Answer: B) To identify unexpected antibodies in the patient’s serum
Rationale: An antibody screen is performed to detect any unexpected antibodies in the
patient's serum that may react with transfused blood and lead to transfusion reactions.
Question 6
Which type of blood product is used to provide clotting factors for patients with hemophilia?
A) Whole blood
B) Packed red blood cells
C) Fresh frozen plasma
D) Platelet concentrate
Answer: C) Fresh frozen plasma
Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma contains clotting factors and is used to treat patients with
hemophilia and other coagulation disorders.
Question 7
,What is the most appropriate blood component to transfuse in a patient with acute blood loss
and low hemoglobin levels?
A) Platelet concentrate
B) Fresh frozen plasma
C) Packed red blood cells
D) Whole blood
Answer: C) Packed red blood cells
Rationale: Packed red blood cells are used to rapidly restore hemoglobin levels and increase
oxygen-carrying capacity in patients experiencing acute blood loss.
Question 8
Which laboratory test is primarily used to evaluate the compatibility of blood during a pre-
transfusion crossmatch?
A) ABO typing
B) Rh typing
C) Antibody screen
D) Serologic crossmatch
Answer: D) Serologic crossmatch
Rationale: The serologic crossmatch test evaluates the compatibility of donor red blood cells
with the recipient's serum, ensuring safe transfusion.
Question 9
Which blood type is considered the universal donor for red blood cell transfusions?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
Answer: D) O
Rationale: Type O red blood cells lack A and B antigens, making them the universal donor
type for red blood cell transfusions, as they do not cause ABO incompatibility.
Question 10
In which situation would you most likely perform a type and screen?
, A) Elective surgery
B) Massive transfusion protocol
C) Emergency transfusion
D) Blood donation
Answer: A) Elective surgery
Rationale: A type and screen is commonly performed before elective surgeries to ensure that
appropriate blood is available if a transfusion is needed, while minimizing unnecessary
crossmatching.
Question 11
What is the primary component of cryoprecipitate?
A) Platelets
B) Fibrinogen
C) Albumin
D) Immunoglobulins
Answer: B) Fibrinogen
Rationale: Cryoprecipitate is rich in fibrinogen, factor VIII, factor XIII, and von Willebrand
factor, making it useful for treating conditions like hypofibrinogenemia.
Question 12
Which of the following blood groups is most likely to cause hemolytic disease of the
newborn (HDN)?
A) ABO incompatibility
B) Rh incompatibility
C) Kell incompatibility
D) Duffy incompatibility
Answer: B) Rh incompatibility
Rationale: Rh incompatibility is the primary cause of hemolytic disease of the newborn
(HDN), particularly when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus.
Question 13
Which of the following tests is used to monitor patients on warfarin therapy?
A) Prothrombin time (PT)
B) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C) Fibrinogen level
D) Platelet count
COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Course
ASCP
Question 1
What is the primary purpose of the crossmatch test in blood transfusion?
A) To determine blood type
B) To detect antibodies in the recipient's serum
C) To ensure compatibility between donor and recipient blood
D) To assess the hemoglobin level
Answer: C) To ensure compatibility between donor and recipient blood
Rationale: The crossmatch test is performed to ensure that the donor's red blood cells are
compatible with the recipient's serum, preventing transfusion reactions.
Question 2
Which blood group system is most clinically significant in blood transfusions?
A) Lewis
B) Kidd
C) Rh
D) MNS
Answer: C) Rh
Rationale: The Rh blood group system is crucial because the presence of the D antigen can
lead to hemolytic transfusion reactions and hemolytic disease of the newborn if mismatched.
Question 3
What does a positive direct Coombs test indicate?
A) Presence of antibodies in the serum
B) Presence of antibodies bound to red blood cells
C) Hemolysis due to a blood group incompatibility
D) Successful blood transfusion
Answer: B) Presence of antibodies bound to red blood cells
Rationale: A positive direct Coombs test indicates that antibodies or complement are bound
to the surface of red blood cells, suggesting conditions like autoimmune hemolytic anemia or
a hemolytic transfusion reaction.
,Question 4
Which of the following blood components is commonly used to treat patients with
thrombocytopenia?
A) Fresh frozen plasma
B) Platelet concentrate
C) Packed red blood cells
D) Cryoprecipitate
Answer: B) Platelet concentrate
Rationale: Platelet concentrate is specifically used to treat patients with low platelet counts
(thrombocytopenia) to help reduce the risk of bleeding.
Question 5
What is the purpose of performing an antibody screen?
A) To confirm blood type
B) To identify unexpected antibodies in the patient’s serum
C) To assess the patient’s iron levels
D) To evaluate clotting factors
Answer: B) To identify unexpected antibodies in the patient’s serum
Rationale: An antibody screen is performed to detect any unexpected antibodies in the
patient's serum that may react with transfused blood and lead to transfusion reactions.
Question 6
Which type of blood product is used to provide clotting factors for patients with hemophilia?
A) Whole blood
B) Packed red blood cells
C) Fresh frozen plasma
D) Platelet concentrate
Answer: C) Fresh frozen plasma
Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma contains clotting factors and is used to treat patients with
hemophilia and other coagulation disorders.
Question 7
,What is the most appropriate blood component to transfuse in a patient with acute blood loss
and low hemoglobin levels?
A) Platelet concentrate
B) Fresh frozen plasma
C) Packed red blood cells
D) Whole blood
Answer: C) Packed red blood cells
Rationale: Packed red blood cells are used to rapidly restore hemoglobin levels and increase
oxygen-carrying capacity in patients experiencing acute blood loss.
Question 8
Which laboratory test is primarily used to evaluate the compatibility of blood during a pre-
transfusion crossmatch?
A) ABO typing
B) Rh typing
C) Antibody screen
D) Serologic crossmatch
Answer: D) Serologic crossmatch
Rationale: The serologic crossmatch test evaluates the compatibility of donor red blood cells
with the recipient's serum, ensuring safe transfusion.
Question 9
Which blood type is considered the universal donor for red blood cell transfusions?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
Answer: D) O
Rationale: Type O red blood cells lack A and B antigens, making them the universal donor
type for red blood cell transfusions, as they do not cause ABO incompatibility.
Question 10
In which situation would you most likely perform a type and screen?
, A) Elective surgery
B) Massive transfusion protocol
C) Emergency transfusion
D) Blood donation
Answer: A) Elective surgery
Rationale: A type and screen is commonly performed before elective surgeries to ensure that
appropriate blood is available if a transfusion is needed, while minimizing unnecessary
crossmatching.
Question 11
What is the primary component of cryoprecipitate?
A) Platelets
B) Fibrinogen
C) Albumin
D) Immunoglobulins
Answer: B) Fibrinogen
Rationale: Cryoprecipitate is rich in fibrinogen, factor VIII, factor XIII, and von Willebrand
factor, making it useful for treating conditions like hypofibrinogenemia.
Question 12
Which of the following blood groups is most likely to cause hemolytic disease of the
newborn (HDN)?
A) ABO incompatibility
B) Rh incompatibility
C) Kell incompatibility
D) Duffy incompatibility
Answer: B) Rh incompatibility
Rationale: Rh incompatibility is the primary cause of hemolytic disease of the newborn
(HDN), particularly when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus.
Question 13
Which of the following tests is used to monitor patients on warfarin therapy?
A) Prothrombin time (PT)
B) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C) Fibrinogen level
D) Platelet count
