AMT MT Study Guide (well answered to
pass)
The three major phases of laboratory testing that a QA program should evaluate include
a. mean, standard deviation, and coefficient of variation.
b. pre-op, operative, and post-op.
c. pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical.
d. outpatient, inpatient, and non-patient. - correct answer ✔✔c. pre-analytical, analytical, and post-
analytical.
The process by which test results achieve the same high levels of accuracy and precision that can be
reproduced across measurement systems, laboratories and time is referred to as
a. laboratory process control.
b. laboratory calibration.
c. laboratory standardization.
d. laboratory verification. - correct answer ✔✔c. laboratory standardization.
What characteristics/functions do calibrators have?
a. They contain a known amount of analyte being tested.
b. They monitor the quality of reagents.
c. They monitor the quality of the sample.
d. They prevent equipment failure. - correct answer ✔✔a. They contain a known amount of analyte
being tested.
An abrupt demonstrated change in the mean is a
,a. shift.
b. trend.
c. variance.
d. deviation. - correct answer ✔✔a. shift.
Qualitative examinations are those that
a. qualify for waived testing.
b. produce non-numerical results.
c. do not require quality control.
d. do not require proficiency testing. - correct answer ✔✔b. produce non-numerical results.
A property of a test that is used to describe its quality (such as accuracy, precision, sensitivity, etc.) is a
a. performance characteristic.
b. performance enhancement.
c. performance verification.
d. performance specification. - correct answer ✔✔a. performance characteristic
Under CLIA law, the process of testing and adjusting an instrument or test system to establish a
correlation between the measured response and the concentration or amount of the substance that is
being measuredby the test procedure is
a. calibration.
b. calibration verification.
c. a challenge.
d. quality control. - correct answer ✔✔a. calibration.
,What agency determines the complexity of a lab test system?
a. CMS
b. FDA
c. CDC
d. OSHA - correct answer ✔✔b. FDA
Certain moderate complexity microscopy tests (such as urine sediment evaluation and skin scrapings)
commonly performed by healthcare providers in the office setting are classified as
a. provider moderate complexity tests.
b. provider exempt status.
c. provider personnel testing.
d. provider performed microscopy. - correct answer ✔✔d. provider performed microscopy.
Policies and procedures that are intended to promote the quality and validity of test data and ensure the
reliability and integrity of data generated by analytical laboratories is known as
a. CLIA Law.
b. Quality Assurance Plan (QAP).
c. Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP).
d. Total Quality Management (TQM). - correct answer ✔✔c. Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP).
Devices based on electrophoretic principles are used in the clinical laboratory to perform all of the
following except to
a. measure quantities of various proteins in plasma, urine, and CSF.
b. separate enzymes into their component isoenzymes.
c. identify antibodies.
, d. measure molecules in a characteristic spectrum called the emission spectrum. - correct answer ✔✔d.
measure molecules in a characteristic spectrum called the emission spectrum.
The chemistry methodology that is based on the fact that substances of clinical interest selectively
absorb or emit electromagnetic energy at different wavelengths is
a. flourometry.
b. atomic absorption.
c. spectrophotometry.
d. photometry. - correct answer ✔✔c. spectrophotometry.
Given %T, how is absorbance calculated?
a. log %T - 2.
b. log %T + 2.
c. 2 + log %T.
d. 2 - log %T. - correct answer ✔✔d. 2 - log %T.
Prohibiting recapping of needles is an example of
a. a workplace control.
b. an engineering control.
c. a best practice in the workplace.
d. a human resources requirement. - correct answer ✔✔a. a workplace control.
The majority of all centrifuge accidents result from
a. electrical malfunctions.
b. faulty mechanisms.
pass)
The three major phases of laboratory testing that a QA program should evaluate include
a. mean, standard deviation, and coefficient of variation.
b. pre-op, operative, and post-op.
c. pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical.
d. outpatient, inpatient, and non-patient. - correct answer ✔✔c. pre-analytical, analytical, and post-
analytical.
The process by which test results achieve the same high levels of accuracy and precision that can be
reproduced across measurement systems, laboratories and time is referred to as
a. laboratory process control.
b. laboratory calibration.
c. laboratory standardization.
d. laboratory verification. - correct answer ✔✔c. laboratory standardization.
What characteristics/functions do calibrators have?
a. They contain a known amount of analyte being tested.
b. They monitor the quality of reagents.
c. They monitor the quality of the sample.
d. They prevent equipment failure. - correct answer ✔✔a. They contain a known amount of analyte
being tested.
An abrupt demonstrated change in the mean is a
,a. shift.
b. trend.
c. variance.
d. deviation. - correct answer ✔✔a. shift.
Qualitative examinations are those that
a. qualify for waived testing.
b. produce non-numerical results.
c. do not require quality control.
d. do not require proficiency testing. - correct answer ✔✔b. produce non-numerical results.
A property of a test that is used to describe its quality (such as accuracy, precision, sensitivity, etc.) is a
a. performance characteristic.
b. performance enhancement.
c. performance verification.
d. performance specification. - correct answer ✔✔a. performance characteristic
Under CLIA law, the process of testing and adjusting an instrument or test system to establish a
correlation between the measured response and the concentration or amount of the substance that is
being measuredby the test procedure is
a. calibration.
b. calibration verification.
c. a challenge.
d. quality control. - correct answer ✔✔a. calibration.
,What agency determines the complexity of a lab test system?
a. CMS
b. FDA
c. CDC
d. OSHA - correct answer ✔✔b. FDA
Certain moderate complexity microscopy tests (such as urine sediment evaluation and skin scrapings)
commonly performed by healthcare providers in the office setting are classified as
a. provider moderate complexity tests.
b. provider exempt status.
c. provider personnel testing.
d. provider performed microscopy. - correct answer ✔✔d. provider performed microscopy.
Policies and procedures that are intended to promote the quality and validity of test data and ensure the
reliability and integrity of data generated by analytical laboratories is known as
a. CLIA Law.
b. Quality Assurance Plan (QAP).
c. Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP).
d. Total Quality Management (TQM). - correct answer ✔✔c. Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP).
Devices based on electrophoretic principles are used in the clinical laboratory to perform all of the
following except to
a. measure quantities of various proteins in plasma, urine, and CSF.
b. separate enzymes into their component isoenzymes.
c. identify antibodies.
, d. measure molecules in a characteristic spectrum called the emission spectrum. - correct answer ✔✔d.
measure molecules in a characteristic spectrum called the emission spectrum.
The chemistry methodology that is based on the fact that substances of clinical interest selectively
absorb or emit electromagnetic energy at different wavelengths is
a. flourometry.
b. atomic absorption.
c. spectrophotometry.
d. photometry. - correct answer ✔✔c. spectrophotometry.
Given %T, how is absorbance calculated?
a. log %T - 2.
b. log %T + 2.
c. 2 + log %T.
d. 2 - log %T. - correct answer ✔✔d. 2 - log %T.
Prohibiting recapping of needles is an example of
a. a workplace control.
b. an engineering control.
c. a best practice in the workplace.
d. a human resources requirement. - correct answer ✔✔a. a workplace control.
The majority of all centrifuge accidents result from
a. electrical malfunctions.
b. faulty mechanisms.
