Primary Care Interprofessional Collaborative Practice 6th Edition by Buttaro.

NURSLINK STUVIA US. TEST BANK Primary Care Interprofessional Collaborative Practice 6th Edition by Buttaro. All Chapters 1- 228 Questions And Answers in 260 Pages. All Answers Are Correct. 2024/2025   MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A small, rural hospital is part of an Accountable Care Organization (ACO) and is designated as a Level 1 ACO. What is part of this designation? a. Bonuses based on achievement of benchmarks b. Care coordination for chronic diseases c. Standards for minimum cash reserves d. Strict requirements for financial reporting CORRECT ANSWER: A 2. What was an important finding of the Advisory Board survey of 2014 about primary care preferences of patients? a. Associations with area hospitals b. Costs of ambulatory care c. Ease of access to care d. The ratio of providers to patients CORRECT ANSWER: C MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which assessments of care providers are performed as part of the value-based purchasing (VBP) initiative? (Select all that apply.) a. Appraising costs per case of care for Medicare patients b. Assessing patients’ satisfaction with hospital care c. Evaluating available evidence to guide clinical care guidelines d. Monitoring mortality rates of all patients with pneumonia e. Requiring advanced IT standards and minimum cash reserves CORRECT ANSWER: A, B, D MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the purpose of Level II research? a. To define characteristics of interest of groups of patients b. To demonstrate the effectiveness of an intervention or treatment c. To describe relationships among characteristics or variables d. To evaluate the nature of relationships between two variables CORRECT ANSWER: C 2. Which is the most appropriate research design for a Level III research study? a. Epidemiological studies b. Experimental design c. Qualitative studies d. Randomized clinical trials CORRECT ANSWER: B 3. What is the purpose of clinical research trials in the spectrum of translational research? a. Adoption of interventions and clinical practices into routine clinical care b. Determination of the basis of disease and various treatment options c. Examination of safety and effectiveness of various interventions d. Exploration of fundamental mechanisms of biology, disease, or behavior CORRECT ANSWER: C Chapter 03: Empowering Patients as Collaborative partners: A New Model for Primary Care Buttaro: Primary Care: A Collaborative Practice, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement made by a health care provider demonstrates the most appropriate understanding for the goal of a performance report? a. “This process allows me to critique the performance of the rest of the staff.” b. “Most organizations require staff to undergo a performance evaluation yearly.” c. “It is hard to be personally criticized but that’s how we learn to change.” d. “The comments should help me improve my management skills.” CORRECT ANSWER: D MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which assessment question would a health care provider ask when engaging in the previsit stage of the new model for primary care? (Select all that apply.) a. “Are you ready to discuss some of the community resources that are available?” b. “Are you experiencing anNyUsiRdSe IefNfeGctTsBCOyMour newly prescribed medications?” c. “Do you anticipate any problems with adhering to your treatment plan?” d. “Are you ready to discuss the results of your laboratory tests?” e. “Do you have any questions about the lab tests that have been ordered for you?” CORRECT ANSWER: B, C, E The nursing responsibilities in the previsit stage include assessing the patient’s tolerance of prescribed medications, understanding of existing treatment plan, and education about required lab testing. The primary care provider is responsible for screening lab data and discussing community resources during the actual visit. Chapter 04: Coordinated Chronic Care Buttaro: Primary Care: A Collaborative Practice, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. To reduce adverse events associated with care transitions, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Service have implemented which policy? a. Mandates for communication among primary caregivers and hospitalists b. Penalties for failure to perform medication reconciliations at time of discharge c. Reduction of payments for patients readmitted within 30 days after discharge d. Requirements for written discharge instructions for patients and caregivers CORRECT ANSWER: C 2. According to multiple research studies, which intervention has resulted in lower costs and fewer rehospitalizations in high-risk older patients? a. Coordination of posthospital care by advanced practice health care providers b. Frequent posthospital clinic visits with a primary care provider c. Inclusion of extended family members in the outpatient plan of care d. Telephone follow-up by the pharmacist to assess medication compliance CORRECT ANSWER: A MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which advantages are provided to the chronically ill patient by personal electronic monitoring devices? (Select all that apply.) a. Helps provide more patient control their health and lifestyle b. Eliminates need for regular medical and nursing follow-up visits c. Helps the early identification of patient health-related problems d. Helps health care providers in keeping track of the patient’s health status e. Cost is often covered by Medicare CORRECT ANSWER: A, C, D, E Chapter 05: An Introduction to Health Care Disparities and Culturally Responsive Primary Care Buttaro: Primary Care: A Collaborative Practice, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A primary care provider administers the “Newest Vital Sign” health literacy test to a patient newly diagnosed with a chronic disease. What information is gained by administering this test? a. Ability to calculate data, along with general knowledge about health b. Ease of using technology and understanding of graphic data c. Reading comprehension and reception of oral communication d. Understanding of and ability to discuss health care concerns CORRECT ANSWER: A 2. What is the main reason for using the REALM-SF instrument to evaluate health literacy? a. It assesses numeracy skills. b. It enhances patient–provider communication. c. It evaluates medical word recognition. d. It measures technology knowledge CORRECT ANSWER: C 3. A female patient who is from the Middle East schedules an appointment in a primary care office. To provide culturally responsive care, what will the clinic personnel do when meeting this patient for the first time? a. Ensure that she is seen by a female provider. b. Include a male family member in discussions about health care. c. Inquire about the patient’s beliefs about health and treatment. d. Research middle eastern cultural beliefs about health care. CORRECT ANSWER: C . Chapter 06: Patient/Family Education and Health Literacy Buttaro: Primary Care: A Collaborative Practice, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A primary care provider is providing care for a postsurgical client who recently immigrated to the United States and speaks English only marginally. What intervention will provide the most effective means of communicating postdischarge information to the client? a. Postpone discharge until the client is fully recovered from the surgery. b. Requesting that a family member who speaks English be present during the teaching session c. Providing the necessary information in written form in the client’s native language d. Requesting the services of a professional interpreter fluent in the client’s native language CORRECT ANSWER: D MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. What question asked by the client newly diagnosed with congestive heart failure demonstrates the effectiveness of previous education concerning the Ask Me 3 health literacy tool? (Select all that apply.) a. “Where can I get assistance with the cost of my medications?” b. “Why is it important for me to take this newly prescribed medication?” c. “Is it true that high blood pressure isn’t causing my problem?” d. “Is congestive heart failure curable with appropriate treatment?” e. “Would watching my intake of salt help me manage this problem? CORRECT ANSWER: B, C, E MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient expresses concern that she is at risk for breast cancer. To best assess the risk for this patient, what is the best initial action? a. Ask if there is a family history of breast cancer. b. Gather and record a three-generation pedigree. c. Order a genetic test for the breast cancer gene. d. Recommend direct-to-consumer genetic testing. CORRECT ANSWER: B 2. A patient asks about direct-to-consumer (DTC) genetic testing. What will the provider tell the patient? a. It is not useful for identifying genetic diseases. b. Much of the information does not predict disease risk. c. The results are shared with the patient’s insurance company. d. The results must be interpreted by a provider. CORRECT ANSWER: B MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is an important part of patient care that can minimize the risk of a formal patient complaint even when a mistake is made? a. Ensuring informed consent for all procedures b. Maintaining effective patient communication c. Monitoring patient compliance and adherence d. Providing complete documentation of visits CORRECT ANSWER: B . MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. What are some causes for failures or delays in diagnosing patients resulting in malpractice claims? (Select all that apply.) a. Failing to recognize a medication complication b. Failing to request appropriate consultations c. Improper performance of atreatment d. Not acting on diagnostic test results e. Ordering a wrong medication CORRECT ANSWER: B, D MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which behavior is most characteristic of early adolescence? a. Arguing with parents and teachers b. Assimilating adult roles and thinking c. Exhibiting fatigue more frequently d. Experimenting with sex and risky behaviors CORRECT ANSWER: A 2. What is the initial sign of puberty in the adolescent male? a. Deepening of the voice b. Elongation of the penis c. Nocturnal emissions d. Testicular enlargement CORRECT ANSWER: D 3. A parent reports that an adolescent child does well in school but seems to consistently make poor decisions about activities with friends. What will the practitioner recommend as an approach to help the adolescent make better decisions? a. Correcting the adolescent’s decisions and judgments b. Listening without making suggestions about choices c. Making decisions for the adolescent to provide guidance d. Providing information about appropriate behavior CORRECT ANSWER: B Chapter 10: LGBTQ Patient Care: Care of Sexual and Gender Minority People Buttaro: Primary Care: A Collaborative Practice, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the focus of the Minority Stress Theory? a. Clarifying the various terms used to describe the LGBTQ community b. Understanding the health needs of select members of the sexual minority community c. Helping health care providers eliminate biases in the care they provide to the members of the LGBTQ community d. Facilitating the management of stress related to the lifestyle choices made by members of sexual minority populations. CORRECT ANSWER: B 2. What is the medical diagnostic term used to identify transgender patients? a. Gender dysphoria b. Gender expression disorder c. Gender identity disorder d. Gender role unconformity CORRECT ANSWER: A Chapter 11: Pregnancy, Prenatal Care, and Lactation Buttaro: Primary Care: A Collaborative Practice, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A woman who is currently pregnant reports that she has had three previous pregnancies: twins delivered at 35-weeks gestation (both living), one at 38-weeks gestation (living), and one miscarriage at 16-weeks gestation. How will this be recorded as her G/TPAL in her electronic medical record? a. G4P:1113 b. G4P:1213 c. G5P:1113 d. G5P:1213 CORRECT ANSWER: A 2. A pregnant woman who is overweight has no previous history of hypertension (HTN) or diabetes mellitus (DM). Her initial screening exam reveals a blood pressure of 140/90 and a fasting blood glucose of 128 mg/dL. What will the practitioner do? a. Initiate insulin therapy. b. Monitor blood pressure and fasting blood glucose closely. c. Prescribe an antihypertensive medication. d. Refer the patient to a high-risk pregnancy specialist. CORRECT ANSWER: B 3. The mother of a 3-day-old newborn reports that her infant health care providers every 4 hours during the day and sleeps 6 hours at night. What will the provider recommend? a. Awakening the baby every 3 hours to health care provider b. Continuing this schedule until the infant is 6 months old c. Ensuring that her infant health care providers for 15 to 20 minutes each time d. Pumping her breasts to maintain her milk supply CORRECT ANSWER: A 4. An infant who has just begun nursing develops hyperbilirubinemia. What will the provider tell the mother? a. To decrease the frequency of breastfeeding b. To supplement feedings with extra water c. To switch to formula until the bilirubin level drops d. To use a breast pump to increase her milk supply CORRECT ANSWER: D . 5. A mother who has been breastfeeding her infant for several weeks develops a fever, breast warmth, and breast tenderness. What will the provider recommend? a. Ice packs and decreased frequency of nursing b. Ice packs and increased frequency of nursing c. Warm packs and decreased frequency of nursing d. Warm packs and increased frequency of nursing CORRECT ANSWER: D This mother has symptoms of mastitis. She should be encouraged to use warm packs for comfort and to increase the frequency of nursing to relieve the pressure. MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. A pregnant woman reports notNhUavRinSgIhNadGaTnBy.vCacOciMnations as a child but requests vaccines during her pregnancy. Which vaccines may be given? (Select all that apply.) a. Human papillomavirus (HPV) b. Inactivated influenza c. Live, attenuated influenza d. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) e. Tetanus, diphtheria, and acellular pertussis (Tdap) f. Varicella CORRECT ANSWER: A, B, E Chapter 12: Human Trafficking Buttaro: Primary Care: A Collaborative Practice, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An unaccompanied teenager is being treated in the emergency department for stomach pains. Which statement would alert the health care provider to the possibility that the patient may be a victim of human trafficking? a. “I can’t pay to see a doctor.” b. “I’ve never been to a hospital before.” c. “You are being very nice to me.” d. “Please, please, don’t hurt me.” CORRECT ANSWER: D 2. A health care provider strongly suspects that the patient being treated for a laceration to the forehead may be a victim of human trafficking. What intervention should be implemented initially before proceeding with a complete screening? a. Determine the patient’s ability to consent to treatment. b. Begin cleansing the wound in preparation for suturing. c. Transfer the patient to a private treatment room. d. Notify the police of the situation. CORRECT ANSWER: C MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. What assessment data would trigger the health care provider’s suspicion that the patient seen in the emergency department may be a victim of human trafficking? (Select all that apply.) a. Provides details related to cause of injury b. Appears to be illiterate c. Has “$50” tattooed on the left shoulder blade d. Cannot provide a local address of residence e. Looks much younger than state age of 21 CORRECT ANSWER: B, C, D, E Chapter 13: Aging and Common Geriatric Syndromes Buttaro: Primary Care: A Collaborative Practice, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What intervention will the provider implement when prescribing medications to an 80-year-old patient? a. Beginning with higher doses and decrease according to the patient’s response b. Consulting the Beers list to help identify potentially problematic drugs c. Ensuring that the patient does not take more than five concurrent medications d. Reviewing all patient medications at the annual health maintenance visit CORRECT ANSWER: B 2. An 80-year-old woman who lives alone is noted to have a recent weight loss of 5 pounds. She appears somewhat confused, according to her daughter, who is concerned that she is developing dementia. The provider learns that the woman still drives, volunteers at the local hospital, and attends a book club with several friends once a month. What is the initial step in evaluating this patient? a. Obtaining a CBC, serum elNecUtrRolSyIteNs,GBTUBN., CanOdMglucose b. Ordering a CBC, serum ferritin, and TIBC c. Referring the patient to a dietician for nutritional evaluation d. Referring the patient to a neurologist for evaluation for AD CORRECT ANSWER: A MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. The practitioner is establishing a plan for routine health maintenance for a new client who is 80 years old. The client has never smoked and has been in good health. What will the practitioner include in routine care for this patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Annual hypertension screening b. Baseline abdominal aorta ultrasound c. Colonoscopy every 10 years d. One-time hepatitis B vaccine e. Pneumovax vaccine if not previously given f. Yearly influenza vaccine CORRECT ANSWER: E, F Chapter 14: Palliative Care Buttaro: Primary Care: A Collaborative Practice, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When should palliative care be initiated by a primary care provider? a. After an ill patient asks for Hospice services b. As part of routine health maintenance c. When a patient is diagnosed with a serious disease d. When an interdisciplinary team is formed to manage a disease CORRECT ANSWER: B MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. When using the “Five Wishes” approach to documenting patient preferences for end-of-life care, the provider will document which types of preferences? (Select all that apply.) a. A directive to avoid calling 911 at the time of death b. A specific list of treatments the patient does not want c. How much information to gNivUeRvSarIioNuGs TfaBCyOmMembers d. The level of sedation versus alertness the patient desires e. The people designated to make care decisions for the patient CORRECT ANSWER: C, D, E 2. A patient who is near death is exhibiting signs of agitation, anxiety, and intractable pain. When discussing palliative sedation with this patient’s family, what will be discussed? (Select all that apply.) a. The chance that refractory symptoms will be alleviated b. The fact that this is an intervention of last resort c. The likelihood that the patient will develop dependence on the drugs d. The need for informed consent from the patient and family e. The possibility that this measure may hasten death CORRECT ANSWER: B, D, E Chapter 15: Acute, Chronic, Oncologic, and End-of-Life Pain Management in Primary Care Buttaro: Primary Care: A Collaborative Practice, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient who has chronic lower back pain reports increased difficulty sleeping unrelated to discomfort, along with a desire to quit working. What will the provider do? a. Ask the patient about addiction issues. b. Consult with a social worker. c. Increase the dosage of prescribed pain medications. d. Order radiographic studies of the lower spine. CORRECT ANSWER: B Patients who exhibit poor sleep and poor coping may be developing mental defeat as a result of chronic pain and should be evaluated and treated early for this to prevent further disability and improve functionality. Substance abuse may be a part of mental defeat and should be evaluated based on assessment findings. Unless the symptoms are related to pain, increasing the dose of analgesics and ordering diagnostic studies are not indicated. 2. A patient with chronic leg pain describes the pain as “stabbing” and “throbbing.” This is characteristic of which type of pain? a. Neuropathic pain b. Referred pain c. Somatic pain d. Visceral pain CORRECT ANSWER: C 3. A patient is beginning treatment for chronic pain and is unable to tolerate nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. What will the provider prescribe for this patient? a. A mixed opiate product b. A pure opioid compound c. A referral for a nerve block procedure d. A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) CORRECT ANSWER: D Chapter 16: Wellness: An Integrated Perspective Buttaro: Primary Care: A Collaborative Practice, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An international traveler plans to travel to Kenya in sub-Saharan Africa. Which is an important disease precaution for this person? a. Carrying chloroquine to take as needed b. Starting prophylactic doxycycline before travel c. Taking precautions against Chikungunya fever d. Understanding how Ebola virus is transmitted CORRECT ANSWER: B 2. A patient who is planning international travel to a developing country asks the provider about vaccinations. Which is true about pretravel vaccines? a. Country-specific guidelines are provided by individual embassies. b. Malaria vaccine is the most important vaccine for worldwide travel. c. Requirements should be reviewed at least 4 to 6 weeks prior to travel. d. There are at least five requiNreUdRvSacIcNinGesTfBor.eCnOtryMinto certain countries. CORRECT ANSWER: C 3. What is a goal of the Healthy People initiative? a. To increase a patient’s quality of life b. To create physical environments that promote proper health c. To achieve health equality by eliminating disparities d. To provide free health care to those unable to pay for care e. To promote healthy behaviors across all life stages CORRECT ANSWER: C MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A woman who is obese has a neck circumference of 16.5 cm. Which test is necessary to assess for complications of obesity in this patient based on this finding? a. Electrocardiography b. Gallbladder ultrasonography c. Mammography d. Polysomnography CORRECT ANSWER: D MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which medications are associated with weight gain? (Select all that apply.) a. Antibiotics b. Antidepressants c. Antihistamines d. Insulin analogs e. Anticonvulsants CORRECT ANSWER: B, C, D, E MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient who has a history of working around asbestos and silica fibers is concerned about developing lung disease. The primary care provider determines that the patient has a previous history of asthma as a child and currently has frequent episodes of bronchitis. A physical examination is normal and pulmonary function tests and radiographs are negative. What action is correct? a. Reassure the patient about the normal findings. b. Refer the patient to an occupational health specialist. c. Request a workplace environmental assessment. d. Suggest that the patient follow up with a pulmonologist. CORRECT ANSWER: B MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. During a preplacement screening for a person hired for a job requiring heavy lifting, a primary care provider notes that the newNUemRpSloIyNeeGhTaBCvOirMonmental allergies, a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), recurrent eczema, a previous history of an ankle fracture, and normal lower back strength and flexibility. A urine drug screen is negative. What will be included in the report to the employer? (Select all that apply.) a. GERD history b. History of allergies and eczema c. History of ankle fracture d. Lower back screening results e. Urine drug screening results CORRECT ANSWER: D, E MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A female college student seeks information about emergency contraception. What is the most important part of the assessment of this patient? a. Cultural considerations for use of contraception b. Feelings of guilt about a possible pregnancy c. Possible concerns about confidentiality d. The female’s sense of control in sexual situations CORRECT ANSWER: D 2. A female freshman college student tells the primary care provider at the student health center that she has a history of anorexia nervosa that has been well-controlled for several years. What will the provider recommend for this student? a. Dietary counseling b. Participation in sports c. Regular weight assessments d. Stress management strategies CORRECT ANSWER: D MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which patient should have pulmonary function testing as part of the presurgical exam? a. A patient older than 60 years of age b. A patient undergoing major intrathoracic surgery c. A patient with a history of pneumonia in the last 2 years d. A patient with diabetes and morbid obesity CORRECT ANSWER: B MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which factors determine which diagnostic tests should be performed in a presurgical clearance evaluation? (Select all that apply.) a. Patient’s age b. Patient’s comorbidities c. Previous surgeries d. Surgeon’s preference e. Type of anesthetic agent planned CORRECT ANSWER: A, B, D, E