Randomized Practice CNIM exam A Questions and answers.

Hair cells Cochlear microphonics are used to monitor what? Increase in delta power and increase in alpha-beta power What is the effect on EEG from induction using isoflurane? A. Decreased delta followed by increased alpha/beta B. Increase in delta power and increase in alpha-beta power C. Increase in low-voltage fast activity D. Increased power at all frequencies limb length What determines the latency of SSEPs most? Lowering the impedances of ground and stimulating electrodes Stimulus artifact during SSEPs can be decreased by: A. Separating stimulating cables from cables of other equipment B. Keeping the instrument away from florescent lights and video monitors C. Using enough muscle relaxant D. Lowering the impedances of ground and stimulating electrodes Is recorded over a generalized region of the scalp The P31 response to posterior tibial nerve stimulation: A. is generated by the thalamus B. Reflects post-synaptic activity in the cervical spinal cord C. Is recordable over a generalized region of the scalp D. Is best recorded by an electrode placed at Cs5 The amount of chassis leakage possible Using an extension cord in the operating room increases: A. The potential for a ground leak B. Amplifier input impedance C. The amount of chassis leakage possible D. Amplitude of responses Posterior to the chiasm A leasing causing homonymous hemianopsia would most likely be located A. at the optic chiasm B. anterior to the chiasm C. posterior to the chiasm D. In the retina C4 positive The location of the electrode that will yield a left hand MEP at the lowest threshold will be: A. C4 positive B. C4 negative C. C3 negative 500 uS What is the maximum recommended stimulation for lower SSEPS? A. 500 uS B. 400 uS C. 300 uS D. 1000 uS Heschl's gyrus What is the primary cortical receiving area for audition? A. Middle temporal gyrus B. Parahippocampal gyrus C. INferior temporal gyrus D. Heschl's gyrus Absence of all waves I-V If the VIIIth nerve were transected, you would get A. Increased I-III latency B. Loss of wave III-V C. No change D. Absence of all waves I-V Higher than surface electrodes Due to smaller surface area, subdermal needle electrodes will have an impedance that is: A. higher than surface electrodes B. Improved by cleansing the skin with an abrasive gel C. Increased with improper insertion D. lower than disk electrodes Descending corticospinal volley D waves represent: 10 msec What is the minimum acceptable sweep for ABRs? absolute boundaries for EPs obtained intraoperatively are not available Preoperative baseline, sensory evoked potential values are essential to IOM because A. It is necessary to compare intraoperative values with laboratory normative data B. Absolute boundaries for EPs obtained intraoperatively are not available C. They help establish the appropriate level of anesthesia D. Latencies and amplitudes are highly variable Drilling cranium When opening posterior fossa, what is the most likely cause for the attenuation of wave I ABRs? A. resection of auditory nerve B. Drilling cranium C. Heat from drill D. Retraction of cerebellum optic nerves In the visual pathway, fibers anterior to the chiasm constitute the A. lateral geniculate bodies B. optic nerves c. optic tracts d. optic radiations 0.1-10 uV Electrical amplitude of SSEPs is A. 10-100 uV B. 0.1 to 10 uV C. 1000 to 10,000 uV D. 100 to 1000 uV succinylcholine A drug that binds to acetylcholine receptors and opens the sodium ion channel to generate and action potential Pancuronium Which of the following has the longest recovery time? A. Vecuronium B. Pancuronium C. Succinylcholine D. rocuronium Monopolar What kind of probe is used for testing screws? 0.2ms The duration of a monophasic, rectangular pulse used for somatosensory stimulation should be: A. 0.05 ms B. 0.2 ms C. 0.5 ms D. 1 ms Side of ear stimulation What is the most important setting when establishing baseline ABR data A. side of ear stimulation B. turning on the notch filter C. optimal rep rate D. Click polarity very little What changes in the ECoG response to click stimulation are likely to occur if the intracranial portion of the auditory nerve is injured? A. very little B. Noticeable decrease in the amplitude of the AP component C. Noticable decrease in the amplitude of the SP component D. Noticeable decrease in both AP and SP components T3-T5 Occlusion of the radicular artery at what level will most likely result in spinal cord ischemia? A. C4-C6 B. L1-L2 C. T3-T5 D. L5-S1 Left SSEP and left MEP A left brown sequard syndrome will result in loss of A. Left SSEP and right MEP B. Right SSEP and left MEP C. Right SSEP and right MEP D. Left SSEP and left MEP N13 Horizontal dipole A. N18 B. N13 C. EP D. N34 Medial elbow Stimulation of proximal ulnar nerve can occur at the A. lateral elbow B. medial elbow C. Cubital fossa medial to biceps D. cubital fossa medial to biceps after a 55% amplitude loss When is it most appropriate to alert the surgeon of a problem with the monitoring? A. After a 55% amplitude loss B. When any change occurs C. After loss of 30% and 5% latency D. All waveforms are lost 10 uA What is the maximum allowable leakage current from the isolated amplifier inputs through the patient leads? thalamus A scalp-recorded potential following MN stimulation in the 16-18 ms range is generated by: A. Cervical cord B. Thalamus C. Cortex D. Medial lemniscus Presence of facial CMAP to proximal facial nerve stimulation at 0.1 mA Following removal of a vestibular schwannoma,