2024 OPHTHALMIC MEDICAL ASSISTING EXAM (OMA) QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS!!

(Chapter 1) What does the abbreviation IJCAHPO stand for? - ANS International Joint Commission on Allied Health Personnel in Ophthalmology (Chapter 1) What responsibility routinely falls to the ophthalmic medical assistant? - ANS Performing certain diagnostic tests (Chapter 1) What disease is associated with increased pressure inside the eye? - ANS Glaucoma (Chapter 1) What eye care professional routinely fills prescriptions for eyeglasses? - ANS Optician (Chapter 1) What does an orthoptist do? - ANS Evaluates Strabismus (Chapter 1) What instrument does an ophthalmologist use to examine the retina and optic nerve? - ANS Ophthalmoscope (Chapter 1) What eye care professional would fit a patient with a prosthetic eye? - ANS Ocularist (Chapter 1) What is the first IJCAHPO level of certification? - ANS Certified Ophthalmic Assistant (Chapter 2) What is the primary function of the medial rectus muscle? - ANS Rotates the eye inward toward the nose (Chapter 2) In what order is visual information from the retina transmitted to the visual cortex? - ANS Bipolar cells to ganglion cells to lateral geniculate body (Chapter 2) Which part of the eye provides two-thirds of the eye's focusing power? - ANS Cornea (Chapter 2) The contraction of what muscle(s) affects globe rotation (incyclotorsion and excyclotorsion)? - ANS Superior oblique, inferior oblique, superior rectus, inferior rectus (Chapter 2) What membrane lines the inner eyelid? - ANS Palpebral Conjunctiva (Chapter 2) What structure separates an internal hordeolum (chalazion) from an external hordeolum (stye)? - ANS Tarsal Plate (Chapter 2) The contraction of what muscle(s) results in enlargement of the pupil? - ANS Dilator (Chapter 2) What structure is responsible for secreting the aqueous humor? - ANS Ciliary Body (Chapter 2) What is the process where the lens changes shape to allow an individual to focus on a near target? - ANS Accommodation (Chapter 2) What kind of vision loss is associated with injury or degeneration of the macula? - ANS Detailed Central Vision (Chapter 2) The crystalline lens regularly comes into contact with what fluids and tissues? - ANS Iris, Zonules, Aqueous Humor, Vitreous (Chapter 2) What cells and glands of the eye and adnexa contribute to tear production? - ANS Goblet Cells, Meibomian Glands, Lacrimal Gland (Chapter 2) What is the primary function of the iris sphincter and dilator muscles? - ANS To change the pupil size to control the amount of light entering the eye (Chapter 3) What is amblyopia? - ANS Poor vision in an eye secondary to visual deprivation in the first decade of life (Chapter 3) What is diplopia? - ANS Double vision (Chapter 3) What is the defining feature of wet age-related macular degeneration (AMD) in comparison to dry AMD? - ANS The presence of aberrant blood vessels leaking fluid in the central retina (Chapter 3) In what condition do the orbital contents swell, pushing the eyeball forward? - ANS Exophthalmos (Proptosis) (Chapter 3) What differentiates pterygia from pingueculae? - ANS Pterygia extend onto the surface of the cornea (Chapter 3) Primary open-angle glaucoma results in damage to what part of the eye? - ANS Optic Nerve (Chapter 3) What is the term for the inward deviation of the eye that occurs only when 1 eye is covered? - ANS Esophoria (Chapter 3) An embolic retinal artery occlusion due to atherosclerosis is best classified as what type of process? - ANS Ischemic (Chapter 3) What is the term for an abnormal physical change that a physician observes while examining a patient? - ANS Sign (Chapter 3) What is the cause of presbyopia? - ANS Progressive hardening of the crystalline lens (Chapter 3) What is a chalazion? - ANS A lump that develops after inflammation and infection (Chapter 3) What term best describes pooling of white blood cells at the bottom of the anterior chamber in the setting of an infectious or inflammatory process? - ANS Hypopyon (Chapter 3) What sign or symptom most strongly suggests the presence of a retinal detachment rather than a posterior vitreous detachment? - ANS A new, unilateral peripheral defect on confrontational visual fields (Chapter 3) What term describes bilateral, elevated optic nerves due to increased intracranial pressure? - ANS Papilledema (Chapter 4) What retinal infection typically occurs in patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who have CD4 counts less than 50? - ANS Cytomegalovirus Retinitis (Chapter 4) What are the common ocular manifestations of myasthenia gravis? - ANS Ptosis, diplopia (Chapter 4) What type of herpes simplex virus usually produces genital infections? - ANS Type 2 (Chapter 4) What is the common ocular manifestation of Sjögren syndrome? - ANS Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca (Chapter 4) What is a cancer that spreads to other parts of the body called? - ANS Metastatic (Chapter 4) The eyes are considered part of what body system? - ANS Nervous (Chapter 4) What autoimmune condition causes selective muscle weakness by interfering with proper nerve transmission in skeletal muscles? - ANS Myasthenia Gravis (Chapter 4) What is a waste product of metabolism in the body? - ANS Carbon Dioxide (Chapter 4) What is a common eye disorder associated with multiple sclerosis? - ANS Optic Neuritis (Chapter 4) What is the most common cause of proptosis in an adult? - ANS Thyroid eye disease (Chapter 4) What is the characteristic feature of proliferative diabetic retinopathy? - ANS Proliferation of blood vessels (Chapter 5) What is the correct transposition of the plus-cylinder prescription +1.00 +3.00 x 90 to its minus-cylinder form? - ANS +4.00 -3.00 x 180 (Chapter 5) This figure shows the focal point of light rays in an eye that is which of the following? - ANS Myopic (Chapter 5) This figure illustrates what property? - ANS Light-divergent property of a concave lens (Chapter 5) What is the change in power called between the upper and lower segments of a bifocal lens? - ANS Add (Chapter 5) What is the best technique for determining the total refractive power requirement of the eye? - ANS Perform retinoscopy after administering cycloplegic eye drops, which block accommodation (Chapter 5) What is a toric cornea characteristic of? - ANS Astigmatism (Chapter 5) What does a lens contain if the lensometer mires cannot be centered? - ANS Prism (Chapter 5) The distance portion of an eyeglass lens is -2.00 D and the bifocal add is +3.00. What is the power of the lens through the bifocal segment? - ANS +1.00 D (Chapter 5) What type of substance permits the passage of light without significant disruption? - ANS Transparent (Chapter 5) What type of lens best corrects hyperopia combined with astigmatism? - ANS Spherocylindrical (Chapter 5) What is the first step in performing manual lensometry or keratometry? - ANS Focus the eyepiece (Chapter 5) What is the power in diopters of a convex lens with a focal length of 0.50 m? - ANS 2.00 D (Chapter 6) What antimicrobial drug is often compounded to increase potency? - ANS Vancyomycin (Chapter 6) What disease should be brought to the ophthalmologist's attention in a patient using oral corticosteroids? - ANS Diabetes Mellitus (Chapter 6) The use of β-adrenergic blockers should be avoided in patients with what medical condition? - ANS Asthma (Chapter 6) What is the primary function of topical corticosteroids? - ANS To reduce swelling and scarring of the lids and anterior segment (anti-inflammatory and antiallergic agents) (Chapter 6) What drug is most helpful when performing both a fundus examination and an objective refraction on a pediatric patient? - ANS A cycloplegic (Chapter 6) What type of injection is classified as a form of systemic drug delivery? - ANS Subcutaneous (Chapter 6) What drug administration route provides the fastest drug delivery into the eye? - ANS Intracameral Injection (Chapter 6) How do miotics reduce intraocular pressure? - ANS By contracting the ciliary body muscle and opening the outflow channels for aqueous humor (Chapter 6) What is a common side effect of cycloplegics? - ANS Blurred Vision (Chapter 6) What 2 types of eyedrops could stimulate an attack of angle-closure glaucoma in patients with narrow anterior chamber angles? - ANS Mydriatics, Cycloplegics (Chapter 6) What ophthalmic dye is used primarily to diagnose herpes simplex keratitis? - ANS Fluorescein (Chapter 6) What should the ophthalmic medical assistant do when instilling eyedrops? - ANS Administer the medication directly into the conjunctival sac. (Chapter 6) What is an adverse effect of topical prostaglandins? - ANS Eyelash Growth (Chapter 6) What class of medications, when taken by mouth, can cause tingling in the hands or feet, a metallic taste, and kidney stones? - ANS Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (Chapter 7) What is the primary purpose of standard precautions? - ANS To reduce the opportunity for harmful microbes to flourish (Chapter 7) What organism is a common contaminant in cosmetics, swimming pools, and hot tubs? - ANS Pseudomonas Aeruginosa (Chapter 7) What is the best definition of sterilization? - ANS The destruction of all microorganisms (Chapter 7) If the ophthalmic medical assistant accidentally touches the sterile functional surface of a disposable instrument, what should be done with the instrument? - ANS Discard, no matter its cost (Chapter 7) How should ophthalmic medical assistants deal with open cuts on their hands? - ANS Wear gloves to protect both patients and themselves (Chapter 7) Who is most at risk for developing an ocular infection from the protozoan Acanthamoeba? - ANS Those who use homemade salt solutions to clean their contact lenses (Chapter 7) What microbe is most likely to cause recurrent fever blisters? - ANS Herpes simplex virus (Chapter 7) In an infection caused by MRSA, what is Staphylococcus aureus resistant to? - ANS Methicillin (Chapter 7) What is the best option for disinfecting a tonometer tip? - ANS A germicide (Chapter 7) What bacterium is the most likely cause of blepharitis? - ANS Staphylococcus Aureus (Chapter 8) Which procedure must be performed before pupillary dilation? - ANS Swinging-Light Test (Chapter 8) What is the prism and alternate cover test used for? - ANS To measure deviation in a misaligned eye (Chapter 8) What step is a necessary part of the Schirmer test? - ANS Remove the testing strip after 5 minutes (Chapter 8) Corneal topography is useful for what measurement? - ANS Refractive error (Chapter 8) How does the pinhole occluder determine whether a refractive error is the cause of below-normal visual acuity? - ANS Transmission of parallel rays (Chapter 8) In a normal consensual reaction, when a light is directed into the pupil of 1 eye, what will the pupil of the other eye do? - ANS Constrict (Chapter 8) How often should healthy, asymptomatic individuals between the ages of 40 and 64 have a comprehensive medical eye examination? - ANS Every 2 to 4 years (Chapter 8) What part of the comprehensive medical eye examination evaluates visual system operation? - ANS Pupillary Examination (Chapter 8) A reading of 3 on the Goldmann tonometer dial indicates what intraocular pressure? - ANS 30 mm Hg (Chapter 8) When conducting the Amsler grid test, it is important to instruct the patient to perform what step? - ANS Hold the card 12 to 14 inches away (Chapter 8) An afferent pupillary defect may be detected in patients with what condition? - ANS Optic Nerve Damage (Chapter 8) Intraocular pressure is measured by flattening a small area of the central cornea using what procedure? - ANS Applanation tonometry (Chapter 8) Near visual acuity measurements can be recorded in units from what system? - ANS Jaeger (Chapter 8) What is gonioscopy used to view? - ANS Structures of the anterior chamber angle (Chapter 8) What does the number 100 represent when reading the Snellen acuity recording 20/100? - ANS Distance in feet at which a normal eye can see a particular line on the chart (Chapter 8) What instrument can be used to evaluate a patient's risk of developing glaucoma? - ANS Pachymeter (Chapter 9) What is the term for horizontal latent strabismus with the eye deviating outward? - ANS Exophoria (Chapter 9) What term refers to observing the movements of both eyes together? - ANS Versions (Chapter 9) What must a patient have in order to develop stereopsis? - ANS Binocular Vision (Chapter 9) What horizontal eye movement turns the eye inward (medially)? - ANS Adduction (Chapter 9) The third cranial nerve controls which muscle? - ANS Medial Rectus (Chapter 9) When strabismus is detected, how is the amount of deviation quantified? - ANS Prism and alternate cover test (Chapter 9) Proper execution of the Titmus stereopsis test requires the patient to wear what type of spectacles? - ANS Light-Polarizing Spectacles (Chapter 9) The sixth cranial nerve supplies which extraocular muscle? - ANS Lateral rectus (Chapter 9) The trochlear nerve powers which extraocular muscle? - ANS Superior Oblique (Chapter 10) B-scan ultrasonography can be used for what purpose? - ANS To characterize intraocular structures and abnormalities, such as tumors (Chapter 10) When undergoing A-scan ultrasonography prior to cataract surgery, the patient looks to the side and the axial length measured is 0.30 mm shorter than the patient's apical cornea-to-retina distance. How does this affect the intraocular lens (IOL) calculation? - ANS The IOL calculation will be 1.00 D more than the patient needs (Chapter 10) What does pachymetry measure? - ANS Thickness of the cornea (Chapter 10) The ocular media includes what transparent structures? - ANS Cornea, lens, vitreous (Chapter 10) Fluorescein angiography is most valuable for evaluating what condition? - ANS Abnormalities in ocular blood vessels (Chapter 10) What does corneal topography measure? - ANS Curvature of the cornea (Chapter 10) What test is used to count endothelial cells of the cornea? - ANS Specular microscopy/photography (Chapter 10) What device measures the effect of media opacity on visual acuity and does not require a clearer zone within the media for assessment? - ANS Interferometer (Chapter 10) Compression of the cornea during A-scan ultrasonography may result in what kind of measurement error and intraocular lens outcome? - ANS Shorter than actual axial length measurement, with a resulting myopic postoperative refractive error (Chapter 10) What does optical coherence tomography measure? - ANS Ocular anatomy (Chapter 10) What can A-scan ultrasonography be used for? - ANS Measuring the axial length of the globe (Chapter 10) What is an acuity chart printed in faint gray rather than in sharp black on white useful for measuring? - ANS Contrast Sensitivity (Chapter 10) Why should a fluorescein or indocyanine angiogram only be performed when a physician and emergency equipment are available? - ANS Risk of anaphylaxis (Chapter 10) What statement applies to commonly used applanation tonometers? - ANS An abnormally thick cornea produces an artificially high intraocular pressure reading (Chapter 10) B-scan ultrasonography is useful for evaluating what condition? - ANS Media opacities (Chapter 10) What is the most common complication of fluorescein angiography? - ANS Nausea (Chapter 10) How does an interferometer measure visual acuity potential? - ANS Projects lines onto the macula (Chapter 11) What is an advantage of Goldmann kinetic perimetry? - ANS It covers the entire visual field (Chapter 11) What field of vision is affected by a defect in the inferior temporal retina? - ANS Superior Nasal (Chapter 11) Where does the physiologic blind spot appear on visual field charts? - ANS In the temporal visual field (Chapter 11) Why should the size of a patient's pupil be recorded at the time of perimetry? - ANS A pupil measuring 2 mm or less results in contraction of the visual field. (Chapter 11) In this visual field report of both eyes, the result depicted is most often due to what condition? - ANS Lesion or tumor near the optic chiasm (Chapter 11) What is the term for a contour obtained with a single target of a particular size and brightness on a visual field chart in kinetic perimetry? - ANS Isopter (Chapter 11) In this visual field chart of the right eye, the shaded area on the left shows decreased visual sensitivity. What is this shaded area known as? - ANS Scotoma (Chapter 11) Which test is an example of static perimetry? - ANS Automated threshold perimetry (Chapter 11) The technique of placing a target of a given size in the visual field and gradually increasing its brightness until the patient sees it is the basis for what test? - ANS Threshold perimetry (Chapter 11) What is an advantage of automated threshold perimetry? - ANS It is more sensitive than kinetic perimetry in detecting shallow defects. (Chapter 11) What condition causes a visual field defect that respects the horizontal meridian? - ANS Glaucoma (Chapter 11) What condition can help ensure an accurate perimetry result? - ANS Having an appropriate add or near correction in place (Chapter 12) How should patients be instructed to care for their eyeglass lenses? - ANS Clean lenses with mild dish soap and dry with a 100% cotton cloth (Chapter 12) Under what circumstance does a change in vertex distance result in the most noticeable change in effective power of the lens? - ANS Refractive prescriptions greater than or equal to -5.00 or +5.00 D (Chapter 12) If the patient's interpupillary distance (PD) is measured incorrectly, and the distance between the optical center of each lens does not correspond to the PD, what complaint might the patient have when wearing the new lenses? - ANS Double vision due to prismatic effect (Chapter 12) As a starting point, most opticians recommend fitting the top of a bifocal segment level with what anatomical landmark? - ANS Lower eyelid margin (Chapter 12) What should monocular patients be encouraged to do? - ANS Use safety lenses full-time even if they do not have a refractive error (Chapter 12) A presbyopic auto mechanic is struggling to use his D segment trifocal glasses because he cannot see well at arm's length over his head. What multifocal lens configuration may help improve his function at work? - ANS Double-D segment occupational lenses (Chapter 12) What is an advantage of progressive addition lenses? - ANS Lenses can be personalized for the patient's prescription and frame style (Chapter 12) What is the procedure for measuring monocular interpupillary distance? - ANS Measure each pupil to the bridge of the nose separately and then add the results (Chapter 13) At a 10-inch (25-cm) reading distance, how much magnification will a +10.00 D lens provide? - ANS 2.5x (Chapter 13) What items are considered low vision optical devices? - ANS Glasses, handheld magnifiers, telescopes (Chapter 13) What bifocal add power is customarily the maximum effective power for near vision in a normally sighted person who is older than 60 years or has hyperopia? - ANS +3.00 D (Chapter 13) When should a patient be referred to a low vision specialist? - ANS When low vision doesn't improve from refraction or medical or surgical treatment (Chapter 13) Legal blindness can be defined as best-corrected visual acuity of 20/200 or less in the better-seeing eye or as what degree of visual field loss? - ANS Visual field reduced to 20 or less in the better seeing eye (Chapter 13) What can reduce glare and improve reading ability for those with low vision? - ANS Wearing a hat with a brim (Chapter 13) For a patient requiring very high magnification and contrast, what nonoptical visual aid would be most helpful? - ANS Closed-circuit television (Chapter 13) What is the most common cause of low vision and blindness in developing countries? - ANS Cataract (Chapter 14) What does a prescription for contact lenses include? - ANS Power of the contact lens and diameter and base curve measurements (Chapter 14) What is the primary purpose of disinfecting contact lenses? - ANS To prevent the growth of bacteria, viruses, and fungi (Chapter 14) An allergic reaction related to contact lens wear is most often due to what substance? - ANS Preservative or disinfectant chemicals in a lens solution (Chapter 14) What is a significant advantage of soft lenses over rigid gas-permeable lenses? - ANS They are generally easier to adapt to and initially more comfortable (Chapter 14) Contact lenses are most likely to be contraindicated for what kind of patient? - ANS One with an occupation involving exposure to fumes (Chapter 14) What is the only acceptable rinsing solution for contact lenses? - ANS Sterile saline solution (Chapter 14) Generally, when inserting a soft contact lens on a patient, where should the ophthalmic medical assistant first place the lens? - ANS On the sclera below the cornea or on the cornea directly (Chapter 14) Cosmetic restorative lenses are most appropriate for what purpose? - ANS To use as a prosthetic for disfigured eyes (Chapter 14) What is typical of a corneal abrasion caused by foreign material lodged between the cornea and the contact lens? - ANS It can result in a corneal infection (Chapter 14) What signs and symptoms indicate an allergic reaction to contact lens solutions? - ANS Irritation, redness, fogging, and decreased tolerated wearing time (Chapter 14) What type of soft contact lens is best for patients with dry eye syndrome? - ANS Daily silicone hydrogel (Chapter 14) What is a complication of poor lens fit or inadequate oxygenation of the cornea? - ANS Corneal Vascularization (Chapter 14) What refractive correction is best suited for treatment of keratoconus or corneal scars? - ANS Rigid gas-permeable contact lenses (Chapter 15) You hear the sound of a patient falling in one of the examination rooms. Upon entering, you encounter an elderly woman prone on the floor, complaining of pain in her right shoulder and neck area. She is alert and oriented. What should you do first? - ANS Notify the physician or another staff member (Chapter 15) What situation should be treated as an emergency requiring immediate action? - ANS Sudden, painless, severe loss of vision (Chapter 15) What type of chemical eye injury is typically the most dangerous? - ANS Alkali burn (Chapter 15) A patient telephones the ophthalmologist's office reporting an alkali burn in the eye. What should the ophthalmic assistant instruct the patient to do? - ANS Irrigate the eye with water for 20 minutes, and then proceed to the office or emergency facility (Chapter 15) A construction worker arrives at the office in severe pain immediately after being struck in the eye with metal ejected from a power tool. There is dark-red, dried blood crusted around the eyelid, and the patient cannot open his eye to test the vision. How should the technician proceed? - ANS Place a protective shield over the affected eye and do not attempt to open it (Chapter 15) What is the primary purpose of triage? - ANS To classify the patient's chief complaint according to its severity and urgency (Chapter 16) In encounters with irate or hostile patients, what is the best approach for an ophthalmic medical assistant to take? - ANS Listen calmly to complaints and apologize for any misunderstanding (Chapter 16) What are symptoms of hypoglycemia? - ANS Weakness, sweatiness, dizziness (Chapter 16) What is the best approach for testing visual acuity in older patients? - ANS Adjust the lightning to avoid glare, which often is a problem in this age group (Chapter 16) A patient with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus suddenly becomes shaky, dizzy, and disoriented while waiting to see the ophthalmologist. What should the assistant do first, acting in compliance with the office's emergency procedures? - ANS Give the patient fruit juice to stabilize the blood glucose level (Chapter 16) Approximately 95% of all individuals older than 65 have variable degrees of what eye condition? - ANS Cataract (Chapter 16) What does a visual acuity of 3/200 signify? - ANS Patient could read the 200 optotype at 3 feet from the chart (Chapter 16) The ability to "fix and follow" as a measure of visual function is generally present by what age? - ANS 12 weeks (Chapter 16) When interacting with a visually impaired or blind patient, how should the ophthalmic medical assistant proceed? - ANS Speak directly to the patient and provide verbal updates regarding the exam and testing (Chapter 16) When the assistant asks a literate 8-year-old patient to read the visual acuity chart, the child begins reciting the alphabet. What is the most effective way to get the test results needed? - ANS Ask the child to start at the beginning of the chart and say each letter separately (Chapter 17) What suture material is nonabsorbable? - ANS Silk (Chapter 17) What minor ophthalmic procedure is typically performed at the exam room slit-lamp biomicroscope? - ANS Corneal debridement (Chapter 17) What task is the ophthalmic medical assistant's responsibility when caring for a patient who is undergoing minor surgery? - ANS Prepping the patient for the minor procedure (Chapter 17) A patient asks you a specific question about the outcome of surgery just before the operation. What is the best action to take? - ANS Suggest that the patient ask the doctor directly, and bring up the question as soon as the doctor arrives (Chapter 17) What suture size is most likely to be used for upper eyelid blepharoplasty? - ANS 6-0 (Chapter 17) What action by the assistant would be considered a violation of the sterile operating field? - ANS Rubbing your nose through the surgical mask (Chapter 17) What is the most commonly used needle point for minor ophthalmic procedures? - ANS Reverse cutting (Chapter 17) What procedure is performed to prevent or treat angle-closure glaucoma? - ANS Laser peripheral iridotomy (Chapter 17) What is the correct order of surgical preparation for a patient undergoing eye surgery? - ANS Add ocular surface numbing drops, add ocular surface povidone-iodine solution, prep the periorbital and eyelid skin, and then drape the patient's face (Chapter 17) In lacrimal-system probing, what is a cannula used for? - ANS To flush out a tear duct with an irrigating solution (Chapter 17) Which instrument pictured would a surgeon use to visualize and hold a chalazion for removal? - ANS A (Chapter 18) What topical medication is commonly used to reduce the risk of subepithelial corneal haze after photorefractive keratectomy? - ANS Corticosteroid (Chapter 18) What is the intended effect of a refractive procedure on corneal curvature for hyperopia correction? - ANS Steepen the cornea (Chapter 18) What finding on corneal pachymetry is a contraindication to laser in situ keratomileusis? - ANS Thin Cornea (Chapter 18) Intrastromal corneal ring segments are most commonly used for what condition? - ANS Early keratoconus (Chapter 18) What complication is more likely to occur after photorefractive keratectomy than laser in situ keratomileusis? - ANS Subepithelial corneal haze (Chapter 18) In the absence of accommodation, where does a hyperopic eye focus images? - ANS Behind the retina (Chapter 18) What kind of optical aberrations cannot be detected by conventional refraction techniques? - ANS Higher order (Chapter 18) What corneal refractive surgery is reversible? - ANS Intrastromal corneal ring segments (Chapter 18) What kind of astigmatism cannot be corrected with astigmatic keratotomy? - ANS Irregular (Chapter 18) What is a term for wavefront error measurement? - ANS Aberrometry (Chapter 19) What is the standard system for reporting diagnoses? - ANS ICD (Chapter 19) While working for a group practice, you observe a provider repeatedly coding visits in a way that you believe constitutes fraud. What should you do? - ANS Notify the compliance officer or practice manager (Chapter 19) After assisting with an office procedure for the first time, a technician takes a cell phone photo to show his friends. The patient is visible in the background. How does this pertain to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)? - ANS This is a violation of HIPPAA because the photo is considered protected health information (Chapter 19) A patient presents for an eye exam complaining of blurry vision 4 weeks after cataract surgery. Prior to examining the patient, the physician requests that a macula optical coherence tomography scan be obtained to determine if the patient has retinal edema. What diagnosis code should the technician enter for the order? - ANS Blurry vision (H53.8) (Chapter 19) OSHA prescribes how practices protect what area? - ANS Employee health and safety (Chapter 19) When is it appropriate to use an "unspecified" International Classification of Diseases (ICD) code? - ANS When no other diagnosis code accurately describes the condition (Chapter 19) Which behavior is inappropriate for a technician? - ANS Discussing clinical findings with the patient (Chapter 19) Which option is not a measure of practice efficiency? - ANS Number of follow-up appointments (Chapter 19) How can ophthalmic medical assistants help create an effective schedule? - ANS Develop schedule templates appropriate for each provider (Chapter 19) What is an example of a quality measure under the Merit-Based Incentive Payment System? - ANS Documentation of current medications in the medical record (Chapter 20) What level of certification requires only a written test? - ANS Certified ophthalmic assistant