NUR 213 Final Exam

1. A client has an AV fistula in the right upper arm for hemodialysis treatments. When planning care for this client, which measure should the nurse implement to promote client safety? A) Take blood pressures only on the right side to ensure accuracy B) Use the fistula for all venipunctures and IV infusions C) Ensure that small clamps are attached to the fistula dressing at all times D) Assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and a thrill every 4 hours - D) Assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and a thrill every 4 hours 2. A client is scheduled for hydrotherapy for a burn dressing change. Which action should the nurse take to ensure that the procedure is most tolerable for the client? A) Ensure the client has a robe and slippers B) Administer an analgesic 20 mins before therapy C) Send dressing supplies with the client to hydrotherapy D) Administer an IV antibiotic 30 mins prior to therapy - B) Administer an analgesic 20 mins before therapy 3. A client with Myasthenia Gravis is admitted to the hospital, and the nursing history reveals that the client is taking pyridostigmine. When assessing the client for the side effects of this medication, the nurse should ask the client about the presence of which occurance? A) Mouth ulcers B) Muscle crampsC) Feelings of depression D) Unexplained weight gain - B) Muscle Cramps 4. Rationale: Pyridostigmine is an anticholinesterase inhibitor used to treat myasthenia gravis. Muscle cramps and small muscle contractions are common side effects and occur as a result of overstimulation of neuromuscular receptors. 5. The nurse notes an isolated premature ventricular contraction (PVC) on the cardiac monitor. Which action should the nurse take? A) Prepare for defibrillation B) Continue to monitor the rhythm C) Notify the HCP D) Prepare to administer lidocaine hydrochloride - B) Continue to monitor the rhythm 6. Rationale: As an isolated occurance, a PVC is not life threatening. The nurse should continue to monitor the patients rhythm. Frequent PVCs, however, maybe precursors of a more life-threatening rhythm such as vtach or vfib. 7. A client was admitted to the hospital 24 hours ago after sustaining blunt force trauma to the chest. Which earliest clinical manifestations of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) should the nurse monitor for? A) Cyanosis and pallor B) Diffuse crackles and rhonchi on chest auscultation C) Increase in respiratory rate from 18 to 30 breaths per minute D) Haziness or "white out" appearance of lungs on chest X-ray - C) Increase in respiratory rate from 18 to 30 breaths per minute8. Rationale: ARDS usually develops within 24-48 hrs after an initiating event, such as chest trauma. In most cases tachypnea and dyspnea are the earliest clinical manifestations as the body compensates for mild hypoxemia through hyperventiliation. Cyanosis and pallor are usually late signs of severe hypoxemia. In ARDS lung sounds are initially clear but progress to crackles and rhonchi as pulmonary edema occurs. Xrays will shouw a "white out" appearance much later in the progression of ARDS. 9. A client has developed atrial fibrillation and has a ventricular rate of 150 beats per minute. The nurse should assess the client for which effects of this cardiac occurrence? A) flat neck veins B) nausea and vomiting C) hypotension and dizziness D) hypertension and headache - C) hypotension and dizziness 10.The home care nurse is making a follow-up visit to a client after a renal transplant. The nurse should assess the client for which manifestations of acute graft rejection? A) hypotension, graft tenderness, and anemia B) hypertension, oliguria, thirst, and hypothermia C) fever, hypertension, graft tenderness, and malaise D) fever, vomiting, hypotension, and copious amounts of dilute urine output - C) fever, hypertension, graft tenderness, and malaise