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Examen

ATSEp NavAids (DME, DVOR, SBS, OBN) Correct answers latest update

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Vista previa 2 fuera de 14 páginas

ATSEp NavAids (DME, DVOR, SBS, OBN) Correct answers latest update b. interrogator DME airborne equipment is also called a. transponder b. interrogator c. transmitter d. receiver a. transponder DME ground equipment is called a. transponder b. interrogator c. transmitter d. receiver c. both a & b Transponder equipment consist of a. transmitter b. receiver c. both a & b d. none of the above c. 1 NM 12.36 us time in DME is equivalent to a. 2 NM b. one way trip distance c. 1 NM d. none of the above b. 126 The total channel for interrogation is a. 63 b. 126 c. 252 d. none of the above c. 36 Pulse spacing for Y-channel interrogation in microseconds a. 12 b. 30 c. 36 d. 24 d. both a & b 7. DME transponders are collocated with VOR with respect to a. frequency b. identification c. power d. both a & b b. increases As the distance to DME station decreases, the slant range error a. remains constant b. increases c. decreases d. is insignificant c. both a & b The time as measured between the 90 and 10 percent amplitude points of the pulse a. rise time b. decay time c. both a & b d. pulse duration b. pulse spacing The time interval between the 50% amplitude points on the leading edges of the pulses a. pulse duration b. pulse spacing c. pulse width d. none of the above b. PRF Is the frequency which each pulse pair has a. PPS b. PRF c. PFR d. none of the above b. search mode The condition which exists when the interrogator is attempting to acquire and lock onto the response to its own interrogations. a. track mode b. search mode c. PRF d. none of the above c. duty cycle The time the transmitter is activated to send reply pulses a. track mode b. reply to interrogation c. duty cycle d. one cycle per second d. all of the above The transmitter is unloaded in the remaining 98.1 % of the time means a. no reply b. receive interrogation c. no power dissipation d. all of the above d. receiver dead time A period immediately following the decoding of a valid interrogation a. reply efficiency b. effective radiated power c. receiver delay time d. receiver dead time d. none of the above Directs the interrogation pulses to the receiver and the reply pulses to antenna a. mixer b. ferris discriminator c. coder d. none of the above d. none of the above Amplifies the small interrogation pulses a. PA b. Modulator c. Gaussian pulse shaper d. none of the above d. video amplifer This is only a LF amplifier a. mixer b. modulator c. IF amplifer d. video amplifer b. static memory The readout is maintained steadily a. velocity memory b. static memory c. automatic standby d. none of the above c. jitter 20. Deliberate random variation of the time interval between successive interrogations a. PRF b. duty cycle c. jitter d. none of the above b. Will never be less than Ec. 1. The magnitude of the resultant envelope in quadrature phasing: a. Will be constant at Ec b. Will never be less than Ec. c. Will be sometimes less than Ec. d. None of the above. b. 0° and 180° The desired objective in combining Ess with Ec is to have them at: a. 90° b. 0° and 180° c. 210° d. 75° c. Ess cos φ / Ec Space modulation Factor is given by the formula: a. Ecs cos φ / Ecm b. Ess sin φ / Ec c. Ess cos φ / Ec d. Esm / Ecm a. The relative phase of current in the antennas, and Tx lines are incorrect. Misphasing in space modulation is caused by: a. The relative phase of current in the antennas, and Tx lines are incorrect. b. Ecs is greater than Ess c. Magnitude of the carrier d. All of the above d. All of the above As misphasing of Ess with respect to Ec is increased: a. Harmonics Develops b. Indication of fundamental frequencies at the receiver becomes less c. Effective space modulation is reduced d. All of the above b. Quadrature phasing It is used as reference in obtaining maximum space modulation: a. Space modulation factor b. Quadrature phasing c. DDM = 0 d. DDM = .155 b. transmitter modulation When carrier and sidebands are mixed in any transmitter circuit, the process is called


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Subido en
22 de abril de 2024
Número de páginas
14
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2023/2024
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Examen
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