ABFAS RRA practice questions with correct answers

When performing a subtalar arthroeresis for a flexible pediatric flatfoot deformity, the release of which of the following anatomic structures that is encountered should be avoided so as not to destabilize the subtalar joint? - Correct Answer-interosseous talocalcaneal ligament. Shown below is the closed injury of a patient whose neurovascular status is intact. What is the best initial treatment option? (Dislocated ankle with possible necrosis of anterior ankle) - Correct Answer-Closed reduction What is the most common complication resulting from a Salter-Harris type III fracture of the distal tibia in a 9-year-old? - Correct Answer-Angular deformity A 45-year-old male sustains a crushing-type injury to the left foot. Radio graphs are negative for fracture and dislocation. Which of the following tests is the most helpful in determining skin flap viability? - Correct Answer-Fluorescein dye study Which of the following surgical principles is not correct when performing a posterior tibial tendon transfer for a dropfoot deformity? A. tendon should be attached under physiologic tension with ankle at 90 degrees. B. typically attached into lateral cuneiform in line with the tendon vector pull. C. passing tendon under the retinaculum decreases power but prevents bowstringing. D. Interosseous membrane window should be small to prevent syndesmotic instability. - Correct Answer-Interosseous membrane window should be small to prevent syndesmotic instability.