ABFAS Rearfoot Exam questions with correct answers

A 25 year old ballet dancer presents with an 8 month history of ankle pain following an ankle sprain. On physical exam there is joint swelling and radio graphs are unremarkable physical therapy and NSAIDs have not reduced her symptoms. What is the next appropriate step in management of this patient? - Correct Answer-MRI For a one-year-old patient with calcaneal valgus, what is an acceptable treatment plan? - Correct Answer-Manipulation and serial casting A 25-year-old female sustained an inversion ankle sprain 24 hours ago. The area is severely edematous and ecchymosis. Diagnostic tests reveal rupture of the lateral collateral ligaments. What should the treatment consist of at this time? - Correct Answer-Compression dressing 24 - 48 hours Which lateral ankle ligaments are intracapsular/extracapsular? - Correct Answer-ATFL - Intracapsular CFL - Extracapsular PTFL - Strongest, deepest, usually doesn't rupture A 30-year-old male complains of a painful right ankle after sustaining a forced plantarflexion injury. Plantarflexion of the foot and dorsiflexion of the hallux greatly exacerbate the symptoms. What is the most probable diagnosis? - Correct Answer-Fracture of the posterior tubercle of the talus. Which procedure would be the most appropriate management strategy for treatment of a rigid flatfoot in an infant diagnosed with a pediatric congenital vertical talus deformity? - Correct Answer-1. Manipulation and weekly serial casting for 5 weeks 2. Achilles tendon lengthening and TN joint pinning.