NAVLE Test Bank;Updated Actual Questions and Answers Solved 100%;(Everything you need to pass NAVLE is here)

NAVLE Test Bank;Updated Actual Questions and Answers Solved 100%;(Everything you need to pass NAVLE is here) What nerve(s) need to be blocked in order to dehorn cattle? Ans- Cornual What nerve(s) need to be blocked in order to dehorn goats? Ans- cornual nerve and infratrochlear nerve Several rabbits in a commercial meat operation have developed genital scabs, perineal ulcerations a crusty exudate around the nose and eyes. Microhemaglutination tests are positive for treponematosis. Which one of the following steps is most effective to treat this problem? A - Amprolium-medicated feed for whole herd, 2 weeks; Increase ventilation B - Clindamycin PO for exposed rabbits, 8 days; Cull affected animals C - Amipcillin PO for affected rabbits, 10-14 days D - Isolate affected animals, Lincomycin in water 2-3 weeks E - Penicillin IM for all rabbits, 5-7 days Ans- Penicillin IM for all rabbits, 5-7 days Two bucket-fed veal calves are depressed and stunted and have sticky feces coating their hindquarters. Fluid-splashing sounds are audible during auscultation over the left flank when a calf is drinking. Passage of a stomach tube obtains a rancid-smelling liquid with a pH of 5.2 [N=5.9-6.2] Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate treatment? A - Cull affected calves B - Remove fermented rumen contents, flush with saline C - Wean affected calves; Shift to bottle-feeding for well calves D - Vitamin E/Selenium injections, plus dietary supplements E - Inoculate rumen fluid from a healthy cow into calf by stomach tube Ans- B - Remove fermented rumen contents, flush with saline This is the clinical picture of a ruminal drinker calf with chronic indigestion from milk deposited directly into the rumen. Treat by removing the fermented material and flushing the rumen with saline. Attempt to induce gastric/reticular groove closure during feeding by inducing vigorous sucking activity with a finger before feeding milk. If calves relapse, consider weaning. The problem occurs due to failure of the gastric groove reflex, which normally shunts milk directly into the abomasum, (bypassing the rumen). Most often seen in bucket fed calves who gulp their milk. Abortions due to brucellosis tend to occur at what stage of pregnancy? Ans- D - Last half of pregnancy Typically, Brucellosis causes abortion in the LAST HALF of pregnancy, for the 5th month onwards. Last trimester is also a good answer, though not entirely correct. You might remember "Bruce is always late". Expect STILLBORN calves. Cows only abort ONCE. Brucellosis is REPORTABLE. The vaccines used are the Brucella abortus strain 19 vaccine or the RB51 vaccine, given to heifer calves 4-12 months old, along with a USDA tattoo in the right ear. Remember: "The right ear is the RIGHT EAR". BVD and Trichomoniasis (occasionally) can cause early abortion in cows, but MOST things cause abortion late, like 3rd trimester. Listeriosis and Arcanobacterium pyogenes can cause abortion at any time during pregnancy. A cow is presented on emergency with urea/non-protein nitrogen toxicity. What is the treatment of choice? A - Atropine, Protopam chloride IV q 4-6 hours B - Rumenal infusion 2-8 liters vinegar,3-10 gallons cold water C - Rumenotomy D - IV Fluids with MgSO4, Na thiosulfate PO E - Relieve bloat, drench with 2-8 liters sodium bicarbonate Ans- B - Rumenal infusion 2-8 liters vinegar,3-10 gallons cold water A 3-month old calf is presented for necropsy. The calf collapsed and suddenly died this morning after she escaped and was chased around the back pasture for 45 minutes by her owner. Among other things, endocardial plaques in the left ventricle of this calf's heart are discovered. What advice should be given the farmer? A - Treat the other calves with vitamin E/Selenium B - Check the mother for bovine leukosis by AGID C - Take all the calves off ionophore-containing feed D - Start the other calves on Ceftiofur (Naxcel ®) E - Search the calf barn for sources of lead Ans- A - Treat the other calves with vitamin E/Selenium Treat the other calves with vitamin E/Selenium. Think White Muscle Disease when you see SUDDEN DEATH and endocardial PLAQUES in a young calf, lamb or kid with a history of recent VIGOROUS EXERCISE. Follow this link to a Merck image of pale ventricular myocardium. Typically seen in young, fast-growing animals (ie: calves 2 weeks-6 mos) Clinical signs may include dyspnea (due to myocardial disease), stiff gait, arched back, weakness, recumbent but BAR (bright, alert, responsive). Sudden death may resemble enterotoxemia, should see acute bloody diarrhea, convulsions, opisthotonos in first days of life with enterotoxemia. Which pair of neonatal calf diarrheas both have public health/zoonotic significance? A - Colibacillosis, Ostertagiasis B - Colibacillosis, Rotavirus C - Cryptosporidiosis, Salmonella D - Salmonella, Coccidiosis E - Clostridium perfringens, Coronavirus Ans- C - Cryptosporidiosis, Salmonella Cryptosporidiosis is caused by a protozoa implicated in drinking water-associated outbreaks of diarrhea in humans; Salmonellae can infect humans from a number of different sources (turtles, chickens, eggs) E. Coli can cause human disease, but Ostertagia and bovine rotavirus do not. (There IS a human version of rotavirus, however) C. perfringens can be found in soil and in the normal gut flora and is not contagious. Swainsonine is a toxic compound present in which one of the following plants? A - Persea americana (Avocado) B - Pteridium aquilinum (Bracken fern) C - Astragalus flavus (Milk vetch) D - Prunus virginiana (Chokecherry) E - Nerium oleander (Oleander) Ans- C - Astragalus flavus (Milk vetch) Swainsonine is found in many species of Astragalus and Oxytropis, called locoweeds, vetches, or milk vetches. Ingestion of swainsonine causes neurologic signs of cerebral disease, called "locoism" in livestock. Behavior changes, aggression, ataxia, depression, circling, and vision loss are some of the clinical signs seen. Recovery is possible with removal of the source, but since locoweed is palatable, animals may eat it again even when other forage is available. Cattle consuming locoweed at high altitudes can develop congestive heart failure, called "High mountain disease". Pulmonary hypertension causes excessive strain on the heart muscle. Nerium oleander (Oleander) contains cardiac gylcosides. Pteridium aquilinum (Bracken fern) contains glycosides and thiaminase. Persea americana (Avocado) contains persin. Prunus virginiana (Chokecherry) contains cyanide. An 8-year old Quarterhorse brood mare presents with an acute onset of colic. On presentation she has a heart rate of 58, respiratory rate of 28, and is seen rolling on the ground. CRT is approximately 3.0 seconds and mucous membranes are slightly red. She has rectal temperature is 101.6F. Gastrointestinal sounds are completely absent and gastric reflux yielded 15L of brown- to yellow- colored fluid. Peritoneal fluid analysis yielded a cloudy yellow fluid with a protein of 2.8 gm/dl and white blood cell count of 11,354/ul. Which of the following is not a likely diagnosis? Epiploic foramen entrapment Mesenteric rent Small intestinal volvulus Strangulating lipoma Ans- Strangulating lipoma Explanation - The correct answer is strangulating lipoma. The clinical signs are consistent with any of the answer choices. However, a strangulating lipoma is least likely to be the case since this horse is still relatively young. Strangulating lipomas are commonly seen in older horses. What is the main lesion associated with polioencephalomalacia in cattle? Necrosis of cortical gray matter Bacterial infiltration of the gyri Normocytic, normochromic anemia Herniation of the cerebellum Ans- Necrosis of cortical gray matter Explanation - The correct answer is necrosis of the cortical grey matter. A normocytic, normochromic anemia is considered an anemia of chronic disease and is not really a lesion. Herniation of the cerebellum through the foramen magnum or the occipital cortex under the tentorium cerebelli may occur, however, only in severe cases, and is associated more with severe swelling of the brain as in salt poisoning. Polio results from thiamine deficiency and has nothing to do with bacterial invasion in the brain. A 4 month old Holstein heifer has a loud cough, tachypnea, diarrhea, and ill thrift of 8 days duration. However, there are no signs of sepsis, depression, or loss of appetite. On physical exam, you could hear crackles and wheezes over the lung fields and a harsh bronchial tone cranioventrally. Given this presentation what is the most likely diagnosis? Enzootic pneumonia Moldy sweet potato poisoning Shipping Fever Aspiration pneumonia Ans- Enzootic pneumonia Explanation - The correct answer is enzootic pneumonia. This disease is multifactorial but is mainly a result of poor housing and environment (poor sanitation and ventilation). Calves with enzootic pneumonia will have cranioventral consolidation and many times they have diarrhea as a result of being infected with Eimeria bovis (like this one). Shipping fever (fibrinous pleuropneumonia) will most likely present with more systemic signs, which is key in differentiating the two diseases. Aspiration pneumonia will probably not result in diffuse lung pathology without also causing systemic signs. Moldy sweet potato poisoning is a good differential and will result in respiratory disease followed by death, but there was no history of exposure here. However, these animals will typically present with more acute respiratory distress and will probably not survive for 8 days, as death usually ensues 2-5 days after exposure. The principal toxin is ipomeanol which is produced by sweet potatoes infected with Fusarium javanicum or F. solani. Ipomeanol will destroy clara cells and type I pneumocytes. A 13-year old male castrated domestic long hair presents for polyphagia, weight loss, and vomiting. The owner notes that the cat appears restless, more active, and more aggressive than before. Which test would diagnose the most likely cause for these signs? Liver panel Gastroduodenoscopy and biopsy Abdominal ultrasound Renal panel and urinalysis Serum T4 Ans- Serum T4 Explanation - The correct answer is serum T4. This cat is most likely hyperthyroid. Polyphagia, weight loss, and hyperactivity are classical clinical signs in a cat with hyperthyroidism. Other signs might include a dull haircoat, PU/PD, vomiting, diarrhea, and aggression. Lethargy, anorexia, and weakness are uncommon but can occur in a condition apathetic hypothyroidism. Which of the following is not a clinical sign you would see in a dog with chocolate toxicosis? Cardiac tachyarrhythmias Seizures Coagulopathy Diarrhea Hyperactivity Ans- Coagulopathy Explanation - The correct answer is coagulopathy. The toxic principle of chocolate is methylxanthines (specifically theobromine and caffeine). Methylxanthines can cause CNS excitation tachycardia, and vasoconstriction. Signs include vomiting, diarrhea, hyperactivity, polyuria, polydipsia, lethargy, tachycardia, cardiac arrhythmias, seizures, and death. An 8-year old cat presents with a several month history of poor appetite and intermittent vomiting and diarrhea. A CBC shows a hematocrit of 33%, WBC count of 12,000/uL, and platelet count of 365,000/uL. Chemistry shows Na-148 mEq/L, K-4.2 mEq/L, BUN-22 mg/dL, creatinine- 1.3 mg/dL, ALT-37 IU/L, cholesterol-180 mg/dL, GGT- 1.0 IU/L, albumin- 3.2 g/dl, globulin 4.6 g/dl. An abdominal ultrasound shows mild-to-moderate multifocal-to-diffuse thickening of the muscularis layer of the small bowel. Biopsies from a gastroduodenoscopy show moderate lymphocytic-plasmacytic infiltration and enteritis. Which of the following medications could be used to control the disease in this feline patient? Sulfadimethoxine Azathioprine Potassium Bromide (KBr) Budesonide Ans- Budesonide Explanation - Corticosteroids such as prednisolone and budesonide are the most common medications used for controlling inflammatory bowel disease in cats. Budesonide concentrates its effects in the gastrointestinal tract, thus has fewer systemic side effects as compared to prednisolone. Sulfasalazine and metronidazole can be used to help the condition by treating secondary bacterial overgrowth. Other treatments include an easily digestible diet and one with a novel protein source, pro-motility agents or anti-nausea agents such as metoclopramide when needed, and vitamins such as cyanocobalamin (vitamin B-12) or omega-3 fatty acids may also be of benefit in some cases. Sulfadimethoxine is an anti-parasitic agent used in treating the coccidia parasites. Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive agent that can be used to treat unresponsive IBD in dogs only. Potassium bromide is an anti-epileptic medication. A 43 kg male castrated Rottweiler presents to your practice for surgery to repair a ruptured cranial cruciate ligament. Preoperative bloodwork and thoracic radiographs are within normal limits. What is an appropriate fluid rate of LRS to maintain this dog at while under anesthesia for the 2 hour procedure? Ans- 360 ml/hr Explanation - Animals under anesthesia for surgery need 5-10 ml/kg/hr of an isotonic crystalloid for "maintenance". In this case, a 43 kg dog needs between 215-430 ml/hr to be in this range. Therefore 360 is the best answer as it corresponds to about 8.4 ml/kg per hour. You will not be allowed to use a calculator at your exam, and you should be able to evaluate these numbers without one. The easiest way to do this is to say that 10 ml/kg per hour would per 430 ml/hr for this dog and therefore, half of that (215 ml/hr) would be the lower end of this range. Note that anesthetic maintenance rates of fluids are substantially higher than the usual maintenance fluid requirement for a dog of 2-3 ml/kg/hr. This increased requirement compensates for evaporation during surgery, metabolism of water, and lack of intake. Transmission of brucellosis in pigs is often via which of the following routes? Venereal transmission, and through aborted fetuses Fecal-oral transmission Vectored by biting insects Aerosol transmission Ans- Venereal transmission, and through aborted fetuses Explanation - The correct answer is venereal transmission, and through aborted fetuses. Pigs are often infected by ingestion of infected aborted fetuses, fetal membranes, and fluids discharged during abortion. Infection can also occur through infected semen via natural breeding, or poorly planned artificial insemination. Transmission is also possible through broken skin and mucous membranes. You are in the process of performing an ECG on a Charolais cow and notice that the P wave is tall and slender and measures 0.48mV, a condition known as P pulmonale. What conclusion as to the nature of the cardiac abnormality can you make from this finding? Left ventricular enlargement Left atrial enlargement Right ventricular enlargement Right atrial enlargement Ans- Right atrial enlargement Explanation - The correct answer is right atrial enlargement. This ECG finding is known as P pulmonale and is characterized by tall slender peaked P waves greater than 0.4mV. Many times these patients have a history of chronic pulmonary disease. Left atrial enlargement on an ECG is known as P mitrale. In this case, an increase in duration of the P wave is seen. Usually they will last at least 0.05 seconds. The reason you see these electrical changes is because of the resulting vectors that are produced by having a certain portion of the heart enlarged. What is the daily normal water consumption rate for an average 450 kg horse? Ans- Explanation - The correct answer is 30 liters of water. Horses consume about 50-70 ml water/kg/day, this will vary somewhat based on temperature, diet, and other factors. However, of these choices, 30 liters is the best choice. Normal urine production in the horse is about 15-30 ml/kg/day. You examine a valuable beef bull which has been in a remote pasture unobserved for several months. The owner has noted that he has a swollen lower jaw. You note the hard, relatively non-painful swelling shown in the photo and diagnose _________. Osteosarcoma Tooth root abscess Actinomycosis Lymphoma Actinobacillosis Ans- Explanation - Also known as lumpy jaw, this condition results from the entry of the normal rumen inhabitant Actinomyces bovis into the bony mandible (usual site) or maxilla through a break in the mucous membranes or teeth. It may be arrested with therapy using sodium iodide, antimicrobials or even isoniazid off-label, but the bony swelling seldom changes much, even if arrested. Which of these signs is unlikely to be seen in a cat with glaucoma? Strabismus Buphthalmos Fundic changes (hyperreflectivity, vascular attenuation) Mydriasis Ans- The answer is strabismus. Cats rarely show acute changes with glaucoma like dogs, so they often present with signs of chronic glaucoma which are buphthalmos, corneal fibrosis, lens luxations, mydriasis, tapetal hyperreflectivity and retinal vascular attenuation, and pale optic discs. Strabismus is not a component of glaucoma. A Columbian red boa presents to your clinic with a complaint of dull mentation, paralysis and an unusual twisted body position. Which of the following provides the best diagnosis? Star gazing, caused by any disease or injury that damages the central nervous system Coccidiodomycosis, especially in the northwest region of the US Mouse Hepatitis Virus (MHV), common in boas which are fed infected mice and rats Ear mites carrying Salmonella spp Ans- Star gazing, caused by any disease or injury that damages the central nervous system Star gazing syndrome is most commonly seen in snakes and is any condition which causes a bizarre twist of the head and neck with an upward look toward the sky. In boas and pythons, an immediate concern would be the viral infection, Inclusion Body Disease, presumed to be caused by a retrovirus. A turtle presents with a history of lethargy, anorexia, and swelling of the ears. What is the treatment of choice? Corticosteroids No treatment, the condition is self-limiting Lance tympanic membranes to drain material and begin supplementation of vitamin A Euthanasia Ans- Lance tympanic membranes to drain material and begin supplementation of vitamin A The correct answer is to lance the tympanic membranes and begin supplementing with vitamin A. Accumulations in the ear due to squamous metaplasia and secondary infection can result from vitamin A ......................................................... DOWNLOAD TO VIEW FULL TEST BANK