KEY Tomory- Study Guide for ADE_NAVTA Exam

1. Which information is not required for an x-ray log? a. Patient address b. Patient name c. X-ray position d. Body measurements 2. A 7 week old Labrador is coming to the clinic because of vomiting and diarrhea. Upon arrival where should the dog wait for its appointment? a. ICU b. Designated exam room c. Front lobby d. Treatment room 3. A Chihuahua needs a nail trim. Which type of appointment is most appropriate? a. Drop off b. Boarding c. Technician/Assistant d. Surgical 4. Which team member must sign a rabies certificate following the rabies vaccination? a. Veterinary technician b. Veterinarian c. Veterinary assistant d. Office manager 5. A 6 month old Shih Tzu was spayed today. Which certificate is prepared for the owner as proof of the procedure? a. Rabies b. Health c. Dental d. Sterilization 6. Lincoln is being admitted to the hospital for a neuter procedure. Which admission form outlines the projected cost of the procedure? a. Estimate b. Registration c. Consent d. Invoice 7. The hospital calls the veterinary office to request medical records for Timmy Smith. What information is needed to verify the patient request? a. Patient name, owner last name, date of last vaccine b. Patient name, owner last name, date of first exam c. Owner last name, patient name, owner drivers license number d. Owner first and last name, patient name, signalment 8. A DSH is being admitted to the hospital for an OVH. In addition to signing and estimate for the procedure, which form must be completed before the procedure can be performed? a. Consent form b. Health certificate c. Discharge instructions d. Invoice 9. When discharging a patient, what does not need to be verified as completed before the veterinary assistant releases the patient? a. The veterinarian has finished writing in the patient’s medical record b. The bill has been paid c. The medications have been dispensed to the client d. The discharge instructions have been communicated and given to the client 10. What must be written at the end of every entry in the patient’s medical record? a. Date b. Owner’s signature c. Author’s initials d. Veterinarian signature 11. According to the Arizona State Veterinary Medical Examining Board, how many years should medical records remain on the premises? a. 1 b. 3 c. 7 d. 10 12. The hospital uses electronic health records. Which client communications are recorded in the electronic health record? a. Only client questions are recorded b. Only client phone calls are recorded c. Every client communication is recorded d. Only client in-person visits are recorded 13. If $677.79 is the total due for a dental procedure and a $300 cash deposit was left when the patient was admitted, what is the remaining amount to be collected? a. $977.79 b. $377.79 c. $1070.79 d. $477.79 14. Mr. Howard brought his German Shepherd Spike into the clinic for three vaccines: DA2PP for $32, Bordetella for $19, and Rabies for $26. He also added a heartworm test for $48 and a toenail trim for $21. The exam cost was $50. What is Mr. Howard’s total bill? a. $91 b. $151 c. $196 d. $71 15. The veterinary assistant takes a message from Mrs. Jones, along with her contact information, who wants to know the results of Missy’s lab work. Who should receive this message? a. Receptionist b. Technician c. Assistant d. Veterinarian 16. Maddy, a new feline patient, has an appointment for vaccines. Her owner does not remember which vaccines she has had. What information is needed before the assistant can call the previous veterinary clinic to request vaccination records? a. Patient name b. Owner name c. Patient date of birth d. Patient and owner name 17. A new patient presents for a dental cleaning. Proof of Rabies vaccine is required, which the owner does not have. What protocol should be followed? a. Contact the previous clinic and request proof of vaccination b. Make a note in the record that the patient is not vaccinated c. Revaccinate the animal regardless of owner consent d. Inform the owner that the pet cannot be seen without proof 18. The tone of voice is the second most important part of communication. When speaking with a client, what tone of voice should be used? a. Monotone with no expression b. Even pitch and empathetic c. Abrupt and loud d. High pitched and chipper 19. Rocky, a 6 month old boxer, was neutered today at the hospital. His procedure is complete and his owner needs to be contacted with an update. Which method of communication is most appropriate when contacting an owner to provide an update? a. Text b. Phone c. Email d. Social media 20. The veterinary assistant does not know the answer to a client’s emailed question. What is the most appropriate course of action? a. Print the email, consult with the veterinarian, and respond with the information in a timely manner b. Mark the email as “unread” and let the next assistant handle it c. Leave the email for someone else to check and follow up d. Print the email and leave it in the veterinarian’s box for him to send a response 21. Every interaction should show respect for the other person. Which action does not show respect? a. Talking slowly and patiently b. Using closed gestures c. Using open gestures d. Smiling pleasantly 22. The receptionist in the clinic has verbalized a religious belief of not being able to view a particular species of reptile. Since the afternoon appointment is for this species, what can be done to accommodate both the receptionist and the client? a. Tell the client the clinic will no longer see his pet reptile b. Schedule the reptile for an appointment on a different day c. Ask the receptionist to do the job he was hired to do d. Have another employee serve the client with the reptile 23. What form in the medical record is the owner required to provide the animal’s signalment? a. Progress notes b. Registration form c. Examination form d. Surgical release 24. A veterinary clinic uses the SOAP format for progress notes. The presenting complaint is written as “Patient presents for V x 2d. No Hx of foreign body ingestion.” Under which category would the information be written? a. Subjective b. Objective c. Assessment d. Plan 25. A veterinary clinic uses the SOAP format for progress notes. Temperature and heart rate of an animal are examples of which type of information? a. Subjective b. Objective c. Assessment d. Plan 26. Where is the plantar region located? a. Bottom of the rear feet b. Bottom of the front feet c. Top of the front feet d. Top of the rear feet 27. What does the suffix “-stomy” mean? a. To cut into b. To suture to c. To remove surgically d. To make a surgical incision 28. Which term means “toward the nose”? a. Cranial b. Medical c. Rostral d. Caudal 29. A 12 week old Multipoo is presenting to the hospital for the first time for an outpatient vaccine appointment. Which form is not needed? a. Estimate b. Exam c. Registration d. Drop off 30. A client requests a refill of a patient’s medication that is approved. Where in the medical record is the refill notated? a. Pharmacy notes b. Objective c. Diagnostic reports d. Radiology notes 31. Who owns the physical medical record? a. Veterinary hospital b. Client c. State d. Patient 32. The clinic has been treating “Hank”, a Heeler mix, for eating garbage. The owner’s mother, whose name is not on the medical record, calls to find out what is going on with the dog. What information is she given? a. The current amount of the bill b. Hank’s current treatment plan c. Everything in Hank’s treatment plan d. Medical information can only be given to the owner 33. According to the Arizona Veterinary Medical Examining Board, how many days does a general practice veterinary facility have to provide copies of medical records? a. 3 b. 7 c. 10 d. 14 34. An out of state emergency clinic requests medical records for a patient that is currently in critical condition at the hospital. How soon do records need to be sent? a. Within the first 48 hours b. Within the next 10 days c. Within the next 5 days d. Within the hour 35. Which scenario would be considered an unethical treatment of a hospitalized animal? a. Obtaining vitals at least twice per day b. Providing the patient with clean, dry bedding c. Walking the patient four times a day d. Not providing fresh water and food as ordered 36. According to the Arizona State Statutes for Ethical Practices, who is the only person that can make recommendations for a pet’s care? a. Receptionist b. Veterinarian c. Technician d. Assistant 37. The veterinary assistant forgot to give medication to a hospitalized patient. It is 4 hours later than the scheduled time. What should the assistant do? a. Give the medication, then explain to the veterinary technician or veterinarian what happened b. Don’t give the medication, but record it in the medical record that she did c. Give the medication and record in the medical chart that she gave it on time d. Explain to the veterinary technician or the veterinarian what happened and seek their advice 38. A client has a 4-H chicken that is treated as a family member with a wound that needs antibiotic therapy. What item required on the drug label may need to be explained to prevent the client from becoming upset because of the human-animal bond with the bird? a. Drug withdrawal time for meat and egg use b. Required use of a separate watering device for the bird c. “For Veterinary Use Only” warning d. Keep refrigerated requirement for poultry medication 39. Which item is not a required part of the veterinary assistant uniform? a. Jewelry b. Scrubs c. Name tag d. Closed toe shoes 40. When presenting an estimate to an owner in an exam room, which type of language is appropriate? a. Medical terminology and layman’s terms b. Medical terminology c. Layman’s terms d. Slang 41. When is it appropriate to take photos of patients for hospital use? a. Always allowed b. Never allowed c. Depends on hospital policy d. With veterinary approval 42. When is it appropriate to use cell phones during work hours? a. Always allowed b. Never allowed c. Depends on hospital policy d. With permission from hospital manager 43. The assistant helps with an outpatient vaccine appointment for a 10 week old bulldog puppy and thinks the puppy is adorable. Which behavior is not acceptable? a. Post a selfie with the puppy on personal social media b. Tell the owner her puppy is adorable and that you can’t wait to see him grow c. Spend time giving the puppy treats so he will feel more comfortable d. Send home a gift bag with safe clinic-approved toys and treats 44. Mr. Williams has arrived for his dog Sam’s vaccination appointment. While walking to the exam room, Mr. Williams asks why the client who just left was crying. How should Mr. Williams' assistant answer the question? a. Apologize and tell Mr. Williams that other patients cannot be discussed with clients, friends, or those not involved with the case b. Apologize and tell Mr. Williams that only the office manager can discuss the client with him c. Tell Mr. Williams about the client, including her name, why she was in the clinic, and why the animal was being seen d. Tell Mr. Williams to wait for the veterinarian to explain the situation 45. Jane is a veterinary assistant. At dinner she told her friend about her favorite patient Rex Jones that came into the clinic for vomiting, and she shared the treatment that was performed. Jane is in violation of which ethical practice? a. Confidentiality b. Reliability c. Honesty d. Integrity 46. According to state and federal laws, veterinary assistants involved in patient care are required to be supervised by whom? a. Veterinarian and/or technician b. Technician only c. Veterinarian only d. Office manager only 47. If the veterinarian is not physically present to provide treatments, which team member can work under indirect supervision? a. Veterinary technician b. Veterinary assistant c. Kennel assistant d. Receptionist 48. A shipment of drugs has arrived that needs to be shelved. What characteristic determines which bottle of medication is placed towards the front for ease of access? a. Milligram size b. Bottle quantity c. Serial number d. Expiration date 49. A veterinary assistant is filling an in-house prescription of antibiotics and notices the drug expired 2 weeks ago. What should he do? a. Notify the doctor and advise the client that he can receive a written order to have the drug filled elsewhere b. Fill the prescription regardless, but do not charge the client c. Advise the client that he will need to return in a week to pick up the medication d. Fill the prescription regardless as drugs are still effective long after their expiration date 50. Why is rabies listed as a zoonotic disease? a. It is a disease that people can get from animals b. It is a disease transmitted in saliva c. It is a disease that can be prevented by vaccination d. It is a severe disease, usually fatal 51. A dog with a cough is immediately placed into an exam room for evaluation. What is the reason this dog was placed into a room before other patients? a. The exam room will help prevent exposure to other animals b. The dog’s disease is more severe c. Exam room temperatures are better controlled d. Excitement of seeing the other dogs may make the cough worse 52. Which characteristic is not true about a virus? a. Treated with antibiotics b. Often contagious c. Very small in size d. Must replicate within the cell 53. Malassezia is commonly found in canines with Otitis Externa. What type of microorganism is this? a. Virus b. Bacteria c. Parasite d. Fugus 54. Which microorganism is characterized by being one-celled, comparatively larger, and treated with antibiotics? a. Viruses b. Ectoparasites c. Fungi d. Bacteria 55. Which disease commonly affects puppies and is characterized by lethargy, inappetance, vomiting, and hemorrhagic diarrhea? a. Rabies virus b. Canine distemper virus c. Parvovirus d. Bordetella bronchiseptica 56. Mr. Bennett took the cat she adopted from a high-density shelter to the clinic because of sneezing. Why is it important to isolate this patient from other patients? a. The cat may have a contagious upper respiratory infection b. The cat may have a zoonotic infection c. The cat may be aggressive d. The cat may be an escape artist 57. According to the CDC, in the general healthcare setting, what is the most important factor in hand washing and sanitizing to prevent patient or self exposure to contamination? a. Washing with fingertips up so water drains to the wrist b. Prompt timeliness before and after at-risk contact c. Use of antibacterial soaps d. Use of alcohol-based sanitizing lotion 58. This label is on a bottle of isopropyl alcohol. Based on the current OSHA hazardous labeling requirements, what are the dangers associated with its use? a. Corrosive and flammable b. Explosive and oxidizing c. Health hazard and fatal d. Flammable and irritant 59. A veterinary assistant removes and discards full PPE of gloves, gown, and face shield. What is the reason for shedding the gown over the gloves until all items are inside out? a. To prevent the risk of tearing a glove in the removal process b. To push the highest contact value of contamination into a grouping away from the body c. To best inspect the items as they leave the body for damage or breaks in the barrier d. To remove the gown as quickly as possible to improve mental focus 60. In an appropriate isolation protocol, where should PPE and the medical mask be discarded? a. Outside the hospital in an open-air dumpster b. In the trash in the general treatment area c. In the snap-on lid trash can outside the isolation area d. In a separate hands-free bio-waste container near the patient 61. When caring for a puppy with parvovirus infection, the stethoscope and thermometer should be managed in what manner? a. They should be left in isolation with the patient and disinfected with appropriate cleaner after each use b. A new stethoscope and thermometer should be used each time and discarded in biohazard waste c. A general care stethoscope and thermometer can be used, followed by steam autoclave sterilization after use d. A general care stethoscope and thermometer can be used, followed by cold sterilization after use 62. A bottle of diff-Quick stain has spilled on the counter of the hospital lab. After putting on PPE, what is the reasonable approach to managing the spill? a. Use chemical absorbent pads to soak up the liquid b. Use a wet/dry vacuum to clean up the mess c. Sweep the liquid with the hand into a trash can d. Use a kitchen sponge to transfer the stain to the sink drain 63. After setting up a fecal float, it is knocked over and spills on the counter and down the cabinet. How should this be cleaned? a. PPE donned, absorbent material to pick up liquids, detergent applied with disposable wipe b. Cat litter applied to all liquids areas as absorbent, then trash removal, and detergent cleaner used to wipe up cabinet c. PPE donned, disinfectant in concentrated form poured into the spilled puddles, then wiped up with a sponge d. Fecasol neutralizes fecal microbes, so a simple wiping down will clean up the area 64. Per Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) guidelines, which icon should be displayed on a refrigerator to store medications? a. c. d. 65. A technician is caring for a dog with leptospirosis, a bacterial disease that survives in the urine and is harmful to people. The dog’s urine needs to be discarded. What protocol should be followed? a. Add pure bleach to the urine, clamp the bag and toss it in the trash b. Double bag the closed off bag and discard it in the biohazard container c. Pour the urine down the sink drain in the treatment area d. Pour the urine into the toilet in the employee break room 66. An evacuation drill is performed in the clinic. Following protocol, after leaving through the nearest exit what is the next step? a. Meet at the kennel to evacuate pets b. Head to the oxygen source to cut off the flow c. Head to the breaker box to cut off electricity d. Meet at the designated meeting point for a head count 67. The clinic was recently remodeled. It has an automated external defibrillator (AED) and five fire extinguishers, and evacuation and safety diagrams were updated due to the remodel. How should this information be disseminated to the employees? a. Designate the location of the AED and extinguishers on a diagram and conduct safety drills b. Hold a general meeting and an OSHA update once a year c. Designate the location of the AED and extinguishers and hand out diagrams to the employees d. Provide supervisors with the updated information and allow the supervisors to be in charge of these items 68. The veterinary assistant is setting up a urinalysis when the fire alarm goes off. What should she do? a. Throw everything away and head to the nearest exit b. Stop what she is doing and head to the nearest exit c. Place the urine sample into the refrigerator and head to the nearest exit d. Finish setting up the urinalysis then head to the nearest exit 69. The veterinary assistant observes a new co-worker preparing to take a dog out of a kennel. He knows the dog is often aggressive. What is the most appropriate response to the situation? a. Do nothing, the co-worker will figure it out b. Videotape the encounter for future training c. Stop the co-worker and inform her of the patient’s behavioral history d. Rush ahead of the co-worker and handle the dog himself 70. A co-worker is observed aggressively pulling on a dog with a slip leash until its front legs are up off the ground and the dog flips over backward. What action should be taken? a. Report the event immediately to the nearest supervisor or DVM b. Go to the local newspaper to report what was just witnessed c. Observe the situation to see how this type of equipment is used for handling dogs d. Post on Facebook what a co-worker does to force dogs to behave 71. When mopping the floor, which precaution is applied to ensure safety for those in the work area? a. Turn down the lighting to discourage use b. Only dry mop because disinfecting can wait until the end of the day c. Make an overhead announcement of a mopped section d. Pace a wet floor sign at each end 72. At what weight range is a second person needed to help lift a dog? a. 40-60lbs b. 0-10lbs c. 11-25lbs d. 26-39lbs 73. Thirty-five pound bags of dog food need to be moved. What is the best technique for moving the dog food? a. Hoist onto the shoulder to carry b. Place on a wheeled dolly c. Drag along the floor d. Carry between the legs and shuffle 74. All veterinary staff involved in radiation exposure in practice should limit their exposure based on which occupational health principal? a. An annual limit of 5 sieverts total effective dose b. As low as reasonably achievable c. The principle that lead shielding is imperfect d. The ratio of achievable safety to the central dosimeter 75. At what age is a person allowed to participate in exposure to radiation in the workplace? a. 15 b. 16 c. 18 d. 21 76. The cat needs radiographs and the owner wants to assist in calming the cat. Which technique will best manage this situation? a. A client without PPE can hold the cat as this will limit worker radiation dose b. If trained to wear lead PPE, the client can participate c. The client cannot be present, chemical restraint can be used to position the cat d. The veterinarian will have to accept substandard positions because the client cannot be present 77. By Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) guidelines, where should information on all chemicals used in the clinic be quickly referenced? a. Wikipedia b. Safety data sheets c. Occupational Health Federal Database d. Manufacturer's website 78. When cleaning after surgery, what action is performed to remove a scalpel blade from its handle? a. Use a needle holder instrument at the base of the blade to lift and push b. Use tin snips to cut the blade off over the sharps container c. Wedge the blade on the plastic lid of the sharps container, bending until it is released d. Don a face shield and exam gloves to manually dislodge the blade 79. While the inventory manager is out, a box arrives with vaccines on cold packs. What should be done to manage this shipment? a. Put the box in the inventory manager’s area, there is enough cold supply to last for days b. Place the vaccines in the medication refrigerator as specified, and tag with a note of the arrival date and time, place the packaging slip in the inventory manager’s area c. Send the inventory manager a text message about the box d. Place vaccines in the break room refrigerator to allow later accounting by inventory manager 80. What does VCPR stand for? a. Veterinary-communication-patient relationship b. Veterinary-client-patient-reminder c. Veterinary-client-practice relationship d. Veterinary-client-patient relationship 81. Merlin, a 9 year old Schnauzer, has been coughing. Merlin has not been to the clinic for a year and a half. The owner calls to have medication prescribed, but does not want an appointment. What guideline determines the doctor’s decision to decline medication without an appointment? a. Human-animal bond b. Veterinary-client-patient relationship c. Animal Welfare Act d. Drug Enforcement Agency 82. Which scheduled drug class has potential for severe additional (such as morphine), and refills are not allowed? a. Schedule II b. Scheduled III c. Scheduled IV d. Schedule V 83. What organization provides the veterinarian with a controlled substance license? a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration b. Drug Enforcement Administration c. American Veterinary Medical Association d. Food and Drug Administration 84. Which statement is true for controlled drugs? a. Controlled drugs do not have to be logged b. All employees should have access to controlled drugs c. Controlled drugs must legally be stored behind two locks d. Licensed veterinary technicians can prescribe controlled drugs 85. Which type of drug would a veterinarian prescribe for an ear infection? a. Topical b. Injectable c. Ophthalmic d. Otic 86. What type of drug is most commonly prescribed for arthritic pain? a. Antiemetic b. Antibiotic c. Antifungal d. Anti Inflammatory 87. Which list has four correct parts of a dispensing drug label? a. Medication name, number of refills, day of the week filled, patient name b. Medication name, number of refills, date filled, patient name c. Medication color, number of refills, date filled, patient name d. Medication name, number of refills, date filled, patient weight 88. Which statement is false for over-the counter drugs? a. They can be purchased by anyone b. They are found at local drug stores c. They must be prescribed by a doctor d. They are non-prescription drugs 89. Which statement is true for medication expiration dates? a. Expired medication can lead to financial loss for a veterinary practice b. Not all medication have an expiration date c. Expiration dates can be changed on a package using a marking pen d. Expired dates don’t affect the hospital financially 90. Which statement is false regarding expiration dates on medications? a. Expired medication may be returned to the manufacturer b. Expired medication can always be used c. Expired medication may be ineffective d. Expired medication may make the animal ill 91. A 9 week old puppy just received his DHPP. When will the next booster be due? a. 6 weeks b. 5 weeks c. 3 weeks d. 2 weeks 92. How long are vaccines good for once reconstituted? a. 1 hour b. 24 hours c. 36 hours d. 48 hours 93. To what anatomical location is a rabies vaccine administered in a feline? a. Left rear leg b. Right rear leg c. Left shoulder d. Right shoulder 94. What feline disease should a patient have negative results before a vaccine is administered? a. Parvovirus b. Feline Immunosuppressive Virus c. Feline Leukemia Virus d. Rabies 95. Which are two core canine vaccines? a. DHPP, Leptospirosis b. DHPP, Lyme c. DHPP, Rabies d. Giardia, Rabies 96. When a capsulated medication is sent home with a patient, which route of administration would be used? a. IV b. IN c. SC d. PO 97. What is the most common route for vaccine administration in dogs and cats? a. PO b. IM c. SC d. IV 98. A cat needs to be restrained to check vital signs. Less-is-more restraint has been tried, but more restraint is needed. What is the term for the base of the neck where the skin is elastic and eask to grab for increased restraint application? a. Lateral recumbency b. Skin turgor c. Scruff d. Oblique 99. What is this restraint tool? a. Nylon muzzle b. Snare c. Stanchion d. Basket muzzle 100. While getting a history on a cat the assistant noticed open-mouthed breathing. What is the appropriate action to take? a. Tell the owner the cat is being taken to the treatment area and notify the veterinarian b. Tell the receptionist the cat is being taken to the treatment area and notify the veterinary technician c. Ask the owner if he would like to notify the veterinarian and let the receptionist know the decision d. Ask for more history and then move on to the next client 101. What is the primary concern when restraining a rabbit? a. The rabbit could bite the restrainer b. If the rear legs are not held properly the rabbit can break its back attempting to kick c. There aren’t any concerns with rabbits d. The rabbit could urinate all over the restrainer out of fear 102. The veterinarian is expected to determine and record required criteria during the patient’s visit to the clinic such as temperature, respiration, mucous membrane color, and weight. What else would the veterinary assistant notate? a. Patient name, pulse, body condition score b. Patient name, body condition score, date of birth c. Date of birth, capillary refill time, pulse d. Pulse, capillary refill time, body condition score 103. What characteristics are referred to as TPR? a. Tact, pulse, respiration b. Temperature, palpation, respiration c. Temperature, pulse, response d. Temperature, pulse, respiration 104. The technician is performing a toenail trim on a 3 month old male puppy. He trims the nails back taking a small amount at a time to ensure that he is not cutting into the quick. What is housed in the quick? a. Nerves and blood supply b. Bone c. Nerves and bone d. Blood supply 105. Which is not used to stop the bleeding of a quick? a. Applying styptic powder b. Applying styptic gel c. Applying silver nitrate d. Applying hydrogen peroxide 106. In dog and cat species, where are the anal glands located? a. 12 and 6 o’clock b. 9 and 3 o’clock c. 11 and 1 o’clock d. 4 and 8 o’clock 107. Which is true when determining the gender of a small animal? a. The anogenital distance in the female is increased b. The anogenital distance in the male and female are the same c. The anogenital distance in the male is decreased d. The anogenital distance in the female is decreased 108. A responsibility of the veterinary assistant is to demonstrate the appropriate technique for brushing a pet's teeth. It is not safe to brush all surfaces. Which surface should be brushed? a. Palatal b. Lingual c. Buccal d. Occlusal 109. A client visits the clinic to inquire about protein percentage requirements for cats. What is the acceptable percentage? a. 15% b. 20% c. 30% d. 45% 110. Sasha is a 6 year old Cocker Spaniel who is being treated for an ear infection. The doctor is explaining how to medicate Sasha’s ears to her owner. What is not an important factor for the owner to remember? a. Sasha may rub her ears on the couch b. The ears should be cleaned before they are medicated c. The owner should wait 5-10 minutes before medicating after cleaning ears d. The owner should massage the ear to ensure the medication moved into the horizontal canal 111. Mrs. Jones explains that Fluffy has been throwing up for the last several days even though she has not given Fluffy any food. What is the chief complaint? a. Diarrhea b. Lethargy c. Not eating d. Vomiting 112. Which finding would not be recorded in the patient history portion of the medical record? a. Vaccine status b. Diet type and feeding regime c. Known medical problems d. Body condition score 113. Diagnosis, prognosis, surgery, and prescribing are all tasks that can only be performed by what team member? a. Office manager b. Veterinary assistant c. Veterinary technician d. Veterinarian 114. The job description for what team member includes being responsible for hospital cleanliness, stocking of supplies, and assisting with patient care if requested by the veterinary technician? a. Receptionist b. Office manager c. Veterinarian d. Kennel assistant 115. Although everyone is considered to be a member of the veterinary healthcare team, who is legally responsible for the safety and well-being of patients and staff? a. Hospital manager b. Hospital owner c. Veterinarian d. Everyone in the hospital 116. Spot is 2 hours post-op after a neuter procedure. The veterinarian asked the assistant to take Spot outside to relieve himself. Upon their return, what should be documented in the medical chart? a. BM, urination, attitude b. BM, urination, time and length of walk c. Urination, attitude, time and length of walk d. Attitude and length of walk 117. The veterinarian asks the assistant to feed a hospitalized patient 1 cup of dry, bland food. After placing the food in the kennel the patient quickly ate it all. What should be noted in the medical chart? a. Amount consumed, amount fed, patient weight b. Amount fed, amount consumed, time given c. Amount fed, time given, patient weight d. Amount consumed, time given, patient weight 118. Max Martin is hospitalized for renal insufficiency. At 3pm his attitude needs to be recorded on his treatment sheet. Max is lying in right lateral recumbency. He responds to sound by moving his eyes, but he does not move his head. How would Max’s mentation be recorded? a. Bright, alert, responsive, b. Quiet, alert, responsive, c. Obtunded d. Lateral 119. Dr Smith has asked that subcutaneous fluids be administered to Snickers. Dr Smith wants LRS 500mls. If the bag is at 900mls when administered, what should the bag read when finished? a. 300mls b. 400mls c. 500mls d. 1400mls 120. Sassy, a 13 year old FS DSH has been hospitalized for hepatic lipidosis. According to Sassy’s treatment plan, she is to receive 15ml of Lactated Ringers Solution per hour. While performing treatment room duties, Sally’s infusion pump begins to alarm. The infusion pump’s visual display notes there is an occlusion. What would not be the cause of an occlusion? a. Patient positioning causing restriction of fluid flow b. Closure of the rolling clamp on the line of the infusion set c. The catheter is no longer patent within the vein d. Air within the line of the infusion set 121. Dr Smith needs assistance in administering 100mls of SC fluids to Buddy. What restraint is preferred to complete the procedure? a. Standing restraint b. Right lateral recumbency c. Left lateral recumbency d. Dorsal recumbency 122. The assistant is helping the technician with hospitalized patients. After taking patient A out for a walk, where is the information documented? a. Exam form b. Progress note c. Travel sheet d. Surgical sheet 123. Dr Smith is hospitalizing Garfield for IV fluids and antibiotics to be administered every 8 hours with the 1st dose given at 12PM. What are the times of the next two doses? a. 12pm and 8pm b. 9pm and 5am c. 7pm and 3am d. 8pm and 4am 124. Which method is not used to encourage a patient to swallow a tablet or capsule? a. Putting dry kibble into the patient’s mouth b. Raising the head upwards c. Blowing on the nose d. Rubbing the throat 125. When administering oral liquids, which condition should the assistant try to prevent? a. Colitis b. Megaesophagus c. Gastroenteritis d. Aspiration 126. When administering liquid medication, where should the syringe tip be placed to encourage swallowing? a. Toward the front of the mouth between the upper and lower incisors b. Toward the back of the mouth near the upper and lower molars c. Behind the lower premolars forcing the mouth open d. Behind the upper canines forcing the mouth open 127. When removing an IV catheter, the assistant placed a pressure bandage that must be monitored and removed in a timely manner. Not doing so may cause the patient’s leg to swell and become painful if it is left on too long. What is a concern with regards to monitoring and removing a pressure bandage? a. Use brightly colored bandage material b. Put a reminder on the patient’s treatment plan c. Set a timer to remind when it is time to remove the bandage d. Not giving the owner a time for pressure bandage removal 128. What procedure should be performed prior to bathing to protect a patient’s eyes? a. Cover the head with a towel b. Apply artificial tears ointment to both eyes c. Make sure the patient’s eyes are closed d. Place an e-collar to protect the head from excess water spray 129. Which clipper blade size will leave hair the shortest? a. 4 b. 7 c. 10 d. 40 130. Max the German Shepherd is at the clinic today for vaccinations. Upon entering the exam room the veterinarian notices that Max has his ears back and is baring his teeth. What behavior is Max exhibiting? a. Submission b. Contentment c. Aggression d. Excitement 131. A patient presents to the animal hospital and is observed walking in circles, often tripping, and lacking balance. What sign is the patient exhibiting? a. Dysphagia b. Alopecia c. Nystagmus d. Ataxia 132. Sampson is a 10 year old Miniature Dachshund presenting to the emergency hospital for respiratory distress. When taking Sampson’s vitals his mm are discovered to be a bluish-grey color. Which is most likely the cause of bluish-grey mm? a. Shock b. Oxygenation issues c. Anemia d. Liver issues 133. What fluid must be added to an autoclave when sterilizing instruments to produce steam and prevent further damage to the machine? a. Instrument cleaner b. Bleach and water solution c. Saline solution d. Distilled water 134. How often should a pressure check be performed on the anesthetic machine? a. Between patients and when the non-rebreathing system is changed b. Daily and when the anesthetic tubing or rebreathing bag is changed c. Weekly and when the anesthetic inhalant is refilled d. Monthly and when the scavenger system is serviced 135. Which bandage material would be considered the primary layer a. Rolled cotton b. Cast padding c. Vet wrap d. Telfa pad 136. Assistance is needed with the removal of an IV catheter. Which supplies will need to be gathered? a. Bandage scissors, gauze square, vet wrap b. Bandage scissors, gauze square, elastikon c. Bandage scissors, gauze square, cast padding d. Bandage scissors, telfa pad, antibiotic ointment elastikon 137. Which statement is not true about euthanasia? a. The owner has the option to be with the pet during euthansia b. The owner has the option to get the ashes back after the pet’s body has been cremated c. Euthanasia is the process of putting an animal to sleep using humane methods d. Euthansia can be performed prior to consent being signed 138. What should be placed under a pet that is about to be euthanized in the exam room? a. Nothing b. Body bag c. Consent form d. Blanket 139. Which surgical instrument is not used during a canine castration? a. Thumb forceps b. Hemostatic forceps c. Scalpel handle d. Spay hook 140. Following a cystotomy, what should occur with all surgical instruments? a. Rinsed immediately with instrument milk b. Cleaned and repackaged for autoclave sterilization c. Placed in cold sterile solution d. Soaked overnight in antiseptic solution 141. What are the two most common types of suture materials? a. Wire and plastic b. Absorbable and non absorbable c. PDS and Monocryl d. Rough and smooth 142. The veterinary assistant requests the largest gauge suture available at the facility. Which suture should the assistant choose? a. 2-0 b. 3-0 c. 4-0 d. 5-0 143. In relation to surgical site preparation, which procedure is not correct? a. Scrub center of surgical site in a circular pattern moving outwards b. Scrub back and forth from top to bottom c. Alternate between a solution and surgical antiseptic d. End scrub procedure with a solution 144. In an ovariohysterectomy procedure, what is the most appropriate patient position? a. Caudal recumbency b. Sternal recumbency c. Lateral recumbency d. Dorsal recumbency 145. When under general anesthesia, how often must a patient’s vital signs be recoded in the medical record according to the Arizona State Practice Act? a. 25 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 10 minutes d. 5 minutes 146. What vital signs must legally be recorded in the medical record while the animal is under anesthesia? a. Heart rate and respiratory rate b. Blood pressure and end-tidal CO2 c. Heart rate and oxygen saturation d. Respiratory rate and blood pressure 147. When assisting the surgeon in a sterile surgical procedure, how does the non-sterile assistant move past the surgeon? a. Non-sterile assistant’s back to the surgeon’s front b. Non-sterile assistant’s side to the surgeon's back c. Non-sterile assistant’s front to the surgeon's back d. Non-sterile assistant’s side to the surgeon’s side 148. To prevent accidental injury when cleaning used instruments, what is the first step? a. Properly dispose of all exposed sharps b. Properly remove all soiled laundry c. Place all instruments in antiseptic d. Dispose of all biohazard tissues 149. When opening the first layer of the gown for the surgeon to put on, what always needs to be maintained? a. Temperature b. Access c. Pack label d. Sterility 150. What procedure would violate asepsis if completed in the surgical suite? a. Clipping and cleaning of the surgical site b. Mopping daily using the dual-mop method c. Using the surgical suite only for sterile surgeries d. Cleaning after each surgical procedure 151. Which method of urine collection involves catching a urine sample midstream while walking the patient? a. Catheterization b. Cystocentesis c. Voided d. Manual expression 152. In performing a gross examination of a canine urine sample, which color is normal? a. Brown b. Red c. Clear d. Yellow 153. Which vessel is most appropriate for collection of a large blood sample? a. Cephalic b. Jugular c. Medical saphenous d. Lateral saphenous 154. A patient is presented for nystagmus, ataxia, and a head tilt. What body system is most likely being affected? a. Reproductive system b. Muscular system c. Circulatory system d. Nervous system 155. Which restraint position is most appropriate when asked to restrain for cephalic blood draw? a. Lateral b. Sitting c. Standing d. Dorsal 156. The doctor has ordered a CBC and chemistry panel for the patient. Which two tubes should be prepared? a. EDTA and serum separator b. EDTA and sodium citrate c. Heparin and serum separator d. Heparin and sodium citrate 157. The blood sample that has been prepared for testing is an SST. After spinning it down, what is the separated liquid portion of the sample called? a. Plasma b. Serum c. White blood cells d. Red blood cells 158. Mrs. Jones is going to bring in a fecal sample for Spot’s appointment on Tuesday. What is the proper way to collect and store this sample? a. Collect up to 2 days prior to appointment and store at room temperature b. Collect the morning of the appointment and store at room temperature c. Collect no more than 24 hours prior to the appointment and store in refrigerator d. Collect no more than 36 hours prior to the appointment and store in the refrigerator 159. A fecal floatation has been prepared for analysis. What is the minimum amount of time the sample should sit before the results are read? a. 5 minutes b. 10 minutes c. 20 minutes d. 30 minutes 160. When preparing a fecal smear, which solution is not used? a. Saline b. Lugol’s solution c. New methylene blue d. Sedi-stain 161. Dr Smith is going to perform a post mortem exam on a feline patient. What is the proper term for this procedure? a. Necropsy b. Autopsy c. Full system exam d. Full body exam 162. Abnormal findings on the skin must be documented in the medical record. In which body system would this abnormality be documented? a. Circulatory system b. Sensory system c. Nervous system d. Integumentary system 163. Samantha is a 3 year old Bloodhound that presented to the hospital for neurologic issues following an incident with a skunk. Dr. Johnson is concerned Samantha may be exhibiting signs of rabies. Who can handle patients that might have rabies? a. Anyone b. No one c. Personnel who volunteer d. Personnel who have been vaccinated for rabies 164. Patients who are deceased are often cremated. Where should the patient’s remains be stored until they are picked up by the cremation service? a. Designated storage room b. Treatment room c. Large kennel d. Designated cold storage 165. Mrs. Smith is here today to euthanize her cat Felix. She has elected to cremate Felix but she does not want the ashes back. Which term refers to a pet’s remains being cremated with other pets? a. Individual b. Special c. Communal d. Regular 166. The doctor asked the assistant to prepare and stain a blood smear. This is typically done with Diff Quick stain. What is the proper name and order of this staining technique? a. Purple, red, light blue b. Light blue, red, purple c. Fixative, eosinate, polychrome blue d. Eosinate, fixative, polychrome blue 167. When preparing a urine sediment for staining, one sample will be prepared without stain and one with stain. What is the major concern about urine sediment stains? a. Exposure to skin b. Contaminants c. Expense d. Stain to surfaces 168. The hospital has an extensive section of in-house lab testing equipment. Which blood test cannot be run in house? a. Blood glucose b. USG c. PCV/TP d. Distemper titer 169. When the hospital receives lab results on a patient, where should these results be recorded? a. In the manager’s inbox b. In the patient’s medical record c. In the mail sent to owner d. In the receptionist’s call back box 170. A lab sample has been prepared to go out to the reference lab. Where is this documented placed to ensure the results are received and recorded? a. Medical record b. Laboratory request form c. Laboratory log d. Call back log 171. The integumentary system is composed of which organs and/or structures? a. Eyes, ears, nose b. Hair, skin, nails, c. Kidneys, bladder, ureters d. Teeth, mouth, tongue 172. What is the name of the movement of a muscle that is under control of the animal? a. Smooth b. Cardiac c. Involuntary d. Voluntary 173. What principal artery carries oxygenated blood to other smaller blood vessels? a. Ventricle b. Inferior vena cava c. Aorta d. Vein 174. The purpose of the circulatory system is to distribute blood through the body, oxygenate the blood, and return the blood back to the heart. What vessels return blood to the heart? a. Arteries b. Veins c. Bronchioles d. Atria 175. Which body system keeps infectious microorganisms out of the body? a. Antibacterial b. Endocrine c. Bone marrow d. Immune 176. What is the term used to describe the inability to breathe? a. Anemia b. Tachypnea c. Apnea d. Hemophilia 177. Which organ is known as the “voice box” and is loaded in the upper respiratory system? a. Larynx b. Diaphragm c. Cilia d. Lungs 178. What is the name of the ruminant stomach compartment that breaks down roughages by using bacteria and protozoa? a. Reticulum b. Rumen c. Omasum d. Monogastric 179. What is the name of the hormone that promotes reabsorption of water from collecting in the kidneys? a. Prolactin b. Antidiuretic c. Oxytocin d. Nephritis 180. What structure is used for filtering waste from the blood, balancing fluids, and forming urine? a. Kidney b. Testes c. Bladder d. Liver 181. The nervous system is composed of which structures? a. Neurons, spinal cord, brain b. Heart, lungs, veins c. Spine, skull, cells d. Eyes, ears, nose 182. What is the name of the chemical that travels from a gland to deliver a message to the target tissue? a. Lymph b. Receptors c. Ovaries d. Hormones 183. What portion of the brain is responsible for producing certain metabolic processes and other activities of the autonomic nervous system and endocrine system? a. Cerebellum b. Adrenal c. Occipital d. Hypothalamus 184. What is the name of the organ that produces male gametes? a. Testes b. Sac c. Prostate d. Penis 185. Which male reproductive structure is responsible for the storage of sperm? a. Prostate b. Ovary c. Testes d. Epididymis 186. The sensory system is responsible for processing smell, taste, touch, hearing and site. What part of the sensory system reacts to the physical stimulus in the environment? a. Brain b. Synapse c. Cotyledons d. Receptors 187. What body system uses antibodies to fight against specific antigens? a. Endocrine b. Immune c. Bacterial d. Lymph 188. Which method is not an example of diagnostic imaging? a. Radiology b. Endoscopy c. Ultrasonography d. Cytology 189. When using calipers to measure anatomy for radiographs, where is the measurement taken? a. Narrowest portion of the anatomy b. Widest portion of the anatomy c. Always right of the anatomy to be radiographed d. Area where the center of the x-ray is located 190. When performing a survey of thoracic radiographs, which is typically the first view? a. Right lateral b. Left lateral c. Dorsal ventral d. Ventral dorsal 191. A Boxer is limping due to a possible ulnar fracture. The veterinarian would like x-rays of the left front limb from the phalanges to the olecranon process. What two views should be taken? a. Lateral, AP b. DV, oblique c. Lateral, VD d. Lateral, DV 192. Why is a dosimeter badge worn by veterinary personnel? a. To monitor radiation exposure b. To identify the role of staff members c. To identify the skill of staff members d. To monitor time staff takes to perform procedures 193. Which information is not required on an x-ray image? a. Directional label b. Attending veterinarian c. Date of exposure d. Presenting complaint 194. After finishing a radiographic study, what is the proper storage for the x-ray gown? a. Fold neatly and place in a drawer b. Gather with partner's gown and stack on the counter c. Hang securely on the bracket with no folding or creasing d. Hang on a hook with as few folds as possible 195. An assistant finds that the drawer and box of undeveloped x-ray film has been left open. What must happen to the box of film? a. Nothing should be done as the film is not affected b. Will be properly discarded as it is useless c. Film is still usable, but image quality may be affected d. Top portion of film should be cut off 196. Which statement is true about the care and maintenance of film cassettes? a. The cassettes do not require routine care b. The cassettes are self cleaning and do not require additional care c. The screen lining should be cleaned monthly with a screen cleaner d. The screens and cassettes can be cleaned with warm water and soap 197. Radiographic developing chemicals are housed in dark rooms. What is another requirement of the room in which these chemicals are stored and used? a. Very warm b. Air tight c. Humid d. Well ventilated 198. Which defines ethics? a. The method for ensuring that professionals act within the law’s legal limits b. The system of moral principles that determines appropriate behavior and actions within a specific group c. Accepted privileges among a specific group of individuals d. Political parties rationalizing each other’s similarities 199. Which can cause a condition known as cutaneous larval migrans? a. Roundworm b. Ringworm c. Hookworm d. Cysts 200. Why is it best to have two refrigerators? a. One for biologics and one for employee food b. One for culture samples and one for canned dog food c. One for the office staff and one for the technical staff d. One for vaccines and one for laboratory supplies