AAB MT Immunology Review questions and answers

Concerning antigen-antibody reactions, the prozone effect causes which of the following results? A. False positive B. False negative C. No reaction D. Mixed field reaction B. False negative The following characteristics are applicable to Interferon-Gamma Release Assays (IGRAs) except: A. Can be used in patients with active tuberculosis disease symptoms B. Preferable for patients who have received a bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccination C. Can be used instead of purified protein derivative (PPD) D. Cannot differentiate latent TB from active tuberculosis infection A. Can be used in patients with active tuberculosis disease symptoms Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) copies DNA through repeated cycles of three basic steps. What is the correct order of these steps? A. Extraction, annealing, denaturation B. Denaturation, annealing, extraction C. Denaturation, extension, annealing D. Denaturation, annealing, extension D. Denaturation, annealing, extension The core (genome) of the HIV virion contains: A. DNA B. RNA C. Both RNA and DNA D. Neither RNA or DNA B. RNA Which of the following autoantibodies would be usually found in a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis? A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor antibodies (TRAbs) B. Antithyroid peroxidase (TPO) C. Islet cell antibodies D. Antitransglutaminase (tTG) B. Antithyroid peroxidase (TPO) TRAbs are associated with Grave's dz, Islet cell antibodies are associated with Type 1 diabetes mellitus, and tTG is associated with Celiac dz. Which of the following blood tests can be collected in a serum separation tube (SST)? A. CBC B. HBsAg C. PT D. ABO group/Rh typing B. HBsAg What two glycoproteins are expressed on the surface of influenza A viruses and are used for subtyping of the viruses? A. Hemagglutinin and Neuraminidase B. Glycoprotein120 (gp120) and Protein 24 (p24) C. Glycoprotein 41 (gp41) and glycoprotein 120 (gp120) D. Neuraminidase and protein 24(p24) A. Hemagglutinin and Neuraminidase Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is characterized by all of the following immunodeficiencies EXCEPT: A. T cell reduction or dysfunction B. B cell reduction or dysfunction C. NK cell reduction D. Deficiency of stem cells D. Deficiency of stem cells A false-positive result can be observed in a rheumatoid factor latex agglutination procedure reaction due to: A. Poor specimen quality B. Antigen excess C. Excessive complement levels D. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis A. Poor specimen quality The classic TORCH panel of tests includes the following diseases with the exception of: A. Rubella B. Toxoplasma gondii C. IM D. Cytomegalovirus C. IM The TORCH panel stands for Toxoplasma gondii, other viruses, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes viruses. Hyperacute rejection of a transplanted organ is caused by: A. Preformed humoral antibodies in patient B. Patient sensitization to donor antigens C. Development of allogenic reaction to donor antigens D. Disturbance of host-graft tolerance A. Preformed humoral antibodies in patient The presence of pre-formed humoral antibodies in a patient reacting with donor tissue cellular antigens is the entire cause of hyperacute rejection. The preformed antibodies are usually anti-A or anti-B related antibodies to the ABO system or antibodies to class I MHC antigens (hypersensitivity type II). Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is chiefly responsible for the degranulation of mast cells and basophils? A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgE E. IgE IgG shows long term/secondary immunity, IgA is seen in secretions, IgM shows short term/primary immunity. When are data collected in a real-time PCR procedure? A. Prior to the addition of fluorescent dyes/probes B. At a single endpoint C. During nucleic acid amplification D. During the cooling stage C. During nucleic acid amplification Molecular methods offer improvements in sensitivity, but they are dependent upon what factor? A. The presence of significant numbers of organisms in the specimen B. Meeting unique/fastidious culture requirements C. The availability of specific instrumentation D. Maintaining the viability of the organism C. The availability of specific instrumentation What molecular technique is appropriate for HIV-1 genotyping? A. Reverse Transcriptase Polymerase Chain Reaction B. Multiplex Polymerase Chain Reaction C. Real-Time Polymerase Chain Reaction D. Strand Displacement Amplification A. Reverse Transcriptase Polymerase Chain Reaction Reverse Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction (RT-PCR)/nucleic acid sequencing can be modified to include the conversion of RNA to DNA using reverse transcriptase in the initial steps. RT-PCR is useful in the identification of RNA viral agents, such as HIV and in particular HIV-1 genotyping. Significant risk factors for potential development of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) include the following factors except: A. Source of immunocompetent lymphocytes B. Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) differences C. Inability to reject donor lymphocytes D. A strong ability of the host to destroy foreign lymphocytes D. A strong ability of the host to destroy foreign lymphocytes AIDS patients have in increased susceptibility to infection due to a decrease in which of the following? A. CD4+ lymphocytes B. CD8+ lymphocytes C. HIV antibodies D. HIV antigens A. CD4+ lymphocytes It is CD4+ T-lymphocytes that help aid our immune system in attacking foreign antigens that cause infections. CD8+ also helps in the role of immunity by eliminating cancer cells. A decrease in these cells could indicate an autoimmune disease but doesn't indicate an infection by HIV. Important applications of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) include the following with the general exception of: A. Search for mutations with large deletions B. Amplification of DNA C. ID of a target sequence D. Synthesis of an anti-sense probe A. Search for mutations with large deletions Only short sequences can be amplified (generally) by PCR. The causative agent of infectious mononucleosis attaches to a receptor on which of the following cells? A. T helper cell B. B lymphocyte C. T suppressor cell D. NK cell B. B lymphocyte Epstein-Barr virus, the causative agent of IM, attaches to a receptor on B lymphs. IM is characterized by lymphocytosis with many reactive lymphs (usually >20%). A kidney graft would have the BEST chance of survival post-transplantation if it were: A. HLA non-identical, mixed lymphocyte culture (+), ABO identical B. HLA identical, mixed lymphocyte culture (+), ABO identical C. HLA identical, mixed lymphocyte culture (-), ABO identical D. HLA identical, mixed lymphocyte culture (-), ABO non-identical C. HLA identical, mixed lymphocyte culture (-), ABO identical The antigen marker most closely associated with transmission of HBV infections is: A. HBsAg B. HBeAg C. HBcAg D. HBiAg B. HBeAg HBsAg is the first marker to appear in HBV infection and indicates active infection, HBcAg is tested to determine the course of HBV infections, and HBiAg is not an actual component of HBV. Examples of cytokines originating from activated T-cells include: A. IL-3, IL-8 B. IL-18, IL-19 C. IL-1 superfamily, IL-2 D. IL-2, IL-3 D. IL-2, IL-3 IL-2, IL-3 are cytokines previously called T-Cell growth factor (IL-2) and Multicolony stimulating factor (IL-3), and are two of the known cytokines that originate from activated T-cells. IL-22 is another cytokine originating in activated T-cells. What is the expected serological response in an immunocompetent patient who has been vaccinated for hepatitis B? A. HBsAg (neg), Anti-HBc(neg), anti-HBs (pos) B. HBsAg (pos), Anti-HBc(pos), anti-HBs (neg) C. HBsAg (neg), Anti-HBc(pos), anti-HBs (pos) D. HBsAg (neg), Anti-HBc(pos), anti-HBs (pos) A. HBsAg (neg), Anti-HBc(neg), anti-HBs (pos) Which type of control should always be negative in a molecular assay? A. Amplification control B. Internal control C. Extraction control D. Contamination control D. Contamination control Class II Major Histocompatibility Complex genes encode for: A. Molecules that present antigen to CD8+ T cells B. Molecules that present antigen to CD4+ T cells C. Complement molecules D. Cytokine molecules B. Molecules that present antigen to CD4+ T cells Molecules that present antigen to CD8+ T cells are encoded by class I MHC genes, complement molecules are encoded by class III MHC genes, and cytokine molecules are encoded by class III MHC genes. The VDRL and RPR are used to provide presumptive identification of which infection? A. Gonorrhea B. Syphilis C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Haemophilus ducreyi B. Syphilis The VDRL and RPR are used to provide presumptive ID of Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis.