HESI PN FUNDAMENTAL WITH OVER 120 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

HESI PN FUNDAMENTAL WITH OVER 120 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS HESI PN FUNDAMENTAL WITH OVER 120 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 1) A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the LPN/LVN implement? A. Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics. B. Administer analgesic medication as needed when the pain is severe. C. Provide medication to keep the client sedated and unaware of stimuli. D. Offer a medication-free period so that the client can do daily activities. Correct Answer: A 2) When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the LPN implement first? A. Loosen the right wrist restraint. B. Apply a pulse oximeter to the right hand. C. Compare hand color bilaterally. D. Palpate the right radial pulse. Correct Answer: A 3) The LPN/LVN is assessing the nutritional status of several clients. Which client has the greatest nutritional need for additional intake of protein? A. A college-age track runner with a sprained ankle. B. A lactating woman nursing her 3-day-old infant. C. A school-aged child with Type 2 diabetes. D. An elderly man being treated for a peptic ulcer. Correct Answer: B 4) A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement? A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form. B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule in the morning. C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose. D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300. Correct Answer: D 5) While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive rangeof- motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the LPN/LVN implement? A. Acknowledge that she is supporting the arm correctly. B. Encourage her to keep the joint covered to maintain warmth. C. Reinforce the need to grip directly under the joint for better support. D. Instruct her to grip directly over the joint for better motion. Correct Answer: A 6) What is the most important reason for starting intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults? A. It is more difficult to find a superficial vein in the feet and ankles. B. A decreased flow rate could result in the formation of a thrombosis. C. A cannulated extremity is more difficult to move when the leg or foot is used. D. Veins are located deep in the feet and ankles, resulting in a more painful procedure. Correct Answer: B 7) The LPN observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Tell the UAP to use a larger cuff at the next scheduled assessment. B. Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff. C. Have the unit educator review this procedure with the UAPs. D. Teach the UAP the correct technique for assessing blood pressure. Correct Answer: B 8) A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVPB. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The LPN plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/ hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion? Correct Answer: 150 9) Twenty minutes after beginning a heat application, the client states that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the LPN/LVN? A. That means you have derived the maximum benefit, and the heat can be removed. B. Your blood vessels are becoming dilated and removing the heat from the site. C. We will increase the temperature 5 degrees when the pad no longer feels warm. D. The body's receptors adapt over time as they are exposed to heat. Correct Answer: D 10) The LPN is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and life style modification. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been effective? A. If I exercise at least two times weekly for one hour, I will lower my cholesterol. B. I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat. C. I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week. D. My blood level of low density lipoproteins needs to increase. Correct Answer: C 11) The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the LPN/LVN to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client? A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving. B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest. C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting. D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot. Correct Answer: D 12) An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position prior to administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the LPN/LVN provide the UAP? A. Position the client on the right side of the bed in reverse Trendelenburg. B. Fill the enema container with 1000 ml of warm water and 5 ml of castile soap. C. Reposition in a Sim's position with the client's weight on the anterior ilium. D. Raise the side rails on both sides of the bed and elevate the bed to waist level. Correct Answer: C 13) A client who is a Jehovah's Witness is admitted to the nursing unit. Which concern should the LPN have for planning care in terms of the client's beliefs? A. Autopsy of the body is prohibited. B. Blood transfusions are forbidden. C. Alcohol use in any form is not allowed. D. A vegetarian diet must be followed. Correct Answer: B 14) The LPN/LVN observes that a male client has removed the covering from an ice pack applied to his knee. What action should the nurse take first? A. Observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack. B. Instruct the client regarding the need for the covering. C. Reapply the covering after filling with fresh ice. D. Ask the client how long the ice was applied to the skin. Correct Answer: A 15) The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive? A. 31 gtt/min. B. 62 gtt/min. C. 93 gtt/min. D. 124 gtt/min. Correct Answer: D 16. a nurse in a clinical is caring for a middle age adult who states, "the doctor says that since I am at an average risk for colon cancer, I should have a routine screening. what does that involve?" which of the following responses should the nurse make? A. "I'll get a blood sample from you and send it for a screening test." B. "beginning at age 60, you should have a colonoscopy." C. "you should have a decal occult blood test every year." D. "the recommendation is to have a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years." "You should have a fecal occult blood test every year." Colorectal cancer screening for clients at average risk begins at age 50. One option for screening is a fecal occult blood test annually. 17. a nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty breathing. the client is laying in bed with a nasal cannula delivering oxygen. which of the following intervention should the nurse take first? A. suction the client's airway B. administer a bronchodilator C. increase the humidity in the client's room D. assist the client to an upright position assist the client to an upright position When providing client care, the nurse should first use the least invasive intervention. Therefore, the nurse should elevate the head of the client's bed to the semi-Fowler's or high Fowler's position to facilitate maximal chest expansion. Sitting upright improves gas exchange and prevents pressure on the diaphragm from abdominal organs. 18. a nurse is preparing to administer 0.5 mL of oral single-dose liquid medication to a client. which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. gently shake the container of medication prior to administration B. transfer the medication to a medicine cup C. place the client in a semi-fowlers position to medication administration D. verify the dosage by measuring the liquid before administering it Gently shake the container of medication prior to administration. The nurse should gently shake the liquid medication to ensure the medication is mixed. 19. a nurse is planning care to improve self-feeding for a client who has vision loss. which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? A. tell the client which food she should eat first B. provide small-handle utensils for the client C. thicken liquids on the client's tray D. use a clock pattern to describe food on the client's plate Use a clock pattern to describe food on the client's plate. Use a clock pattern to describe food on the client's plate.MY ANSWERDescribing the location of the food on the plate by using a clock pattern allows the client to have greater independence during meals. 20. a nurse is teaching an older adult client who is at risk for osteoporosis about beginning a program of regular physical activity. which of the following types of activity should the nurse recommend? A. walking briskly B. riding a bicycle C. performing isometric exercises D. engaging in high-impact aerobics walking briskly Weight-bearing exercises are essential for maintaining bone mass, which helps to prevent osteoporosis. Walking engages older adult clients in this preventive and therapeutic strategy. 21. a nurse is assessing a client's readiness to learn about insulin administration. which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn? A. "I can concentrate best in the morning." B. "it is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home." C. "I'm wondering why I need to learn this." D. "you will have to talk to my wife about this." "I can concentrate best in the morning." The client's statement indicates a readiness to learn because he is verbalizing the best time for him to learn. 22. a nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who will require oxygen therapy at home. which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands how to manage this therapy at home? A. "I'll make sure that, when my friend comes by, she smokes at least 6 feet away from my oxygen tank." B. "I'll use a woolen blanket if I get chilly while I'm using my oxygen." C. "I'll check the wires and cables on my TV to make sure they are in good working order." D. "I'll lay my oxygen tank down on the floor when the grandchildren visit so they don't knock it over." "I'll check the wires and cables on my TV to make sure they are in good working order." Oxygen is a highly flammable gas. The client should make sure any electrical equipment in the room where she is using supplemental oxygen is functioning properly so it does not create any electrical sparks. 23. a nurse is caring for a client who is reporting difficulty falling asleep. which of the following measures should the nurse recommend? A. drink a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime B. exercise 1 hr before going to bed C. use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime D. reflect on the day's activities before going to bed Use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime. Progressive relaxation promotes sleep by decreasing stress and reducing muscle tension. 24. A policy requiring the removal of acrylic nails by all nursing personnel was implemented 6 months ago. Which assessment measure best determines if the intended outcome of the policy is being achieved. a. Number of staff induced injury b. Client satisfaction survey c. Health care-associated infection rate. d. Rate of needle-stick injuries by nurse. 25. The nurse is preparing to assist a newly admitted client with personal hygiene measures. The client...the client’s gag reflex. Which action should the nurse include? A. Offer smalls sips of water through a straw B. Place tongue blade on back half of tongue C. Use a penlight to observe back of oral cavity D. Auscultate breath sounds after client swallows 26. The nurse explains to an older adult male the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. A. Assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure B. Check the urine for color and texture C. Empty the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container D. Discard the contents of the urinal 27. A 54-year-old male client and his wife were informed this morning that he has terminal cancer. Which nursing intervention is likely to be most A. Ask her how she would like to participate in the client’s care B. Provide the wife with information about hospice C. Encourage the wife to visit after painful treatments are completed D. Refer her to support group for family members of those dying of cancer 28. A client who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is requesting information on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. Which action should the nurse recommend? A. Plan low carbohydrate and high protein meals B. Engage in strenuous activity for an hour daily C. Keep a record of food and drinks consumed daily D. Participated in a group exercise class 3 times a week 29. The nurse assesses a client who has a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. To assess for skin damage related to the cannula, which areas should the nurse observe? A. Tops of the ear B. Bridge of the nose C. Around the nostrils D. Over the cheeks E. Across the forehead 30. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is providing a total bed bath for a confused and lethargic client. The UAP is soaking the client’s foot in a basin of warm water placed on the bed. What action should the nurse take? a. Remove the basin of water from the client’s bed immediately b. Remind the UAP to dry between the client’s toes completely c. Advise the UAP that this procedure is damaging to the skin d. Add skin cream to the basin of water while the foot is soaking 31. The nurse in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague’s assignment. Which action should the nurse implement? a. Communicate the colleague’s actions to the unit charge nurse b. Send an email to facility administration reporting the action c. Write an anonymous complaint to a professional website d. Post a comment about the action on a staff discussion board 32. At 0100 on a male client’s second postoperative night, the client states he is unstable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement? a. Leave the room and close the door to the client’s room b. Assess the appearance of the client’s surgical dressing c. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic d. Discuss symptoms of sleep deprivation with the client 34. The nursing staff in the cardiovascular intensive care unit are creating a continuous quality improvement project on social media that addresses coronary artery disease (CAD). Which action should the nurse implement to protect client privacy? a. Remove identifying information of the clients who participated b. Recall that authored content may be legally discoverable c. Share material from credible, peer reviewed sources only d. Respect all copyright laws when adding website content 35. A male client with unstable angina needs a cardiac catheterization, so the healthcare provider explains the risks and benefits of the procedure, and then leaves to set up for the procedure. When the nurse presents the consent form for signature, the client hesitates and asks how the wires will keep his heart going. Which action should the nurse take? a. Answer the client’s specific questions with a short understandable explanation b. Postpone the procedure until the client understands the risks and benefits c. Call the client’s next of kin and ask them to provide verbal consent d. Page the healthcare provider to return and provide additional explanation 36. The nurse is teaching a client how to do active range of motion (ROM) exercises. To exercise the hinge joints, which action should the nurse instruct the client to perform? a. Tilt the pelvis forwards and backwards b. bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus c. Turn the head to the right and left d. Extend the arm at the ide and rotate in circles 37. Which drug does a nurse anticipate may be prescribed to produce diuresis and inhibitformation of aqueous humor for a client with glaucoma? Chlorothiazide (Diuril) Acetazolamide (Diamox) Bendroflumethiazide (Naturetin) Demecarium bromide (Humorsol) 38. A client receiving steroid therapy states, "I have difficulty controlling my temper which is sounlike me, and I don't know why this is happening." What is the nurse's best response? Tell the client it is nothing to worry about. Talk with the client further to identify the specific cause of the problem.Instruct the client to attempt to avoid situations that cause irritation. Interview the client to determine whether other mood swings are being experienced. 39. A client receiving steroid therapy states, "I have difficulty controlling my temper which is sounlike me, and I don't know why this is happening." What is the nurse's best response? Tell the client it is nothing to worry about. Talk with the client further to identify the specific cause of the problem.Instruct the client to attempt to avoid situations that cause irritation. Interview the client to determine whether other mood swings are being experienced. 40. The nurse is caring for a client with a temperature of 104.5 degrees Fahrenheit. The nurse applies a cooling blanket and administers an antipyretic medication. The nurse explains thatthe rationale for these interventions is to: Promote equalization of osmotic pressures. Prevent hypoxia associated with diaphoresis. Promote integrity of intracerebral neurons. Reduce brain metabolism and limit hypoxia. 41. A health care provider prescribes 500 mg of an antibiotic intravenous piggyback (IVPB) every 12 hours. The vial of antibiotic contains 1 g and indicates that the addition of 2.5 mL of sterile water will yield 3 mL of reconstituted solution. How many milliliters of the antibiotic should be added to the 50 mL IVPB bag? Record your answer using one decimal place. mL 1.5 42. The nurse is caring for a non-ambulatory client with a reddened sacrum that is unrelieved by repositioning. What nursing diagnosis should be included on the client's plan of care? Risk for pressure ulcer Risk for impaired skin integrity Impaired skin integrity, related to infrequent turning and repositioning Impaired skin integrity, related to the effects of pressure and shearing force 43. A client has a pressure ulcer that is full thickness with necrosis into the subcutaneous tissuedown to the underlying fascia. The nurse should document the assessment finding as whichstage of pressure ulcer? Stage I Stage II Stage III Unstageable A pressure ulcer with necrotic tissue is unstageable. The necrotic tissue must be removed before the wound can be staged. A stage I pressure ulcer is defined as an area of persistent redness with no break in skin integrity. A stage II pressure ulcer is a partial-thickness wound with skin loss involving the epidermis, dermis, or both; the ulcer is superficial and may present as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. A stage III pressure ulcer involves full thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneousfat. Bone, tendon, and muscle are not exposed. 44. A client is being admitted for a total hip replacement. When is it necessary for the nurse toensure that a medication reconciliation is completed? Select all that apply. After reporting severe pain On admission to the hospital Upon entering the operating room Before transfer to a rehabilitation facility At time of scheduling for the surgical procedure Medication reconciliation involves the creation of a list of all medications the client is taking and comparing it to the health care provider's prescriptions on admission or when there is a transfer to a different setting or service, or discharge. A change in status does not require medication reconciliation. A medication reconciliation should be completed long before entering the operating room. Total hip replacement is elective surgery, and scheduling takes place before admission; medication reconciliation takes place when the client is admitted. 45. A client is taking lithium sodium (Lithium). The nurse should notify the health care provider for which of the following laboratory values? White blood cell (WBC) count of 15,000 mm3 Negative protein in the urine Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 20 mg/dL Prothrombin of 12.0 seconds White cell counts can increase with this drug. The expected range of the WBC count is 5000 to 10,000 mm3 for a healthy adult. Urinalysis, BUN, and prothrombin are not necessary and these arenormal values. 46. Often when a family member is dying, the client and the family are at different stages ofgrieving. During which stage of a client's grieving is the family likely to require more emotional nursing care than the client? Anger Denial Depression Acceptance In the stage of acceptance, the client frequently detaches from the environment and may become indifferent to family members. In addition, the family may take longer to accept the inevitable death than does the client. Although the family may not understand the anger, dealing with the resultant behavior may serve as a diversion. Denial often is exhibited by the client and family members at the same time. During depression, the family often is able to offer emotional support, which meets their needs. 47. The client asks the nurse to recommend foods that might be included in a diet for diverticular disease.Which foods would be appropriate to include in the teaching plan? Select all that apply. Whole grains Cooked fruit and vegetables Nuts and seeds Lean red meats Milk and eggs With diverticular disease the patient should avoid foods that may obstruct the diverticuli. Therefore the fiber should be digestible, such as whole grains, and cooked fruits and vegetables. Milk and eggshave no fiber content but are good sources of protein. In clients with diverticular disease, nuts and seeds are contraindicated as they may be retained and cause inflammation and infection, which is known as diverticulitis. The client should also decrease intake of fats and red meats. 48. A nurse is obtaining a health history from the newly admitted client who has chronic pain inthe knee. What should the nurse include in the pain assessment? Select all that apply. Pain history, including location, intensity, and quality of pain Client's purposeful body movement in arranging the papers on the bedside table Pain pattern, including precipitating and alleviating factors Vital signs such as increased blood pressure and heart rate The client's family statement about increases in pain with ambulation Accurate pain assessment includes pain history with the client's identification of pain location, intensity, and quality and helps the nurse to identify what pain means to the client. The pattern of pain includes time of onset, duration, and recurrence of pain and its assessment helps the nurse anticipate and meet the needs of the client. Assessment of the precipitating factors helps the nurse prevent the pain and determine it cause. Purposeless movements such as tossing and turning or involuntary movements such as a reflexive jerking may indicate pain. Physiological responses such as elevated blood pressure and heart rate are most likely to be absent in the client with chronic pain. Pain is a subjective experience and therefore the nurse has to ask the client directly instead of accepting statement of the family members. 49. While undergoing a soapsuds enema, the client reports abdominal cramping. What action should the nurse take? Immediately stop the infusion. Lower the height of the enema bag. Advance the enema tubing 2 to 3 inches. Clamp the tube for 2 minutes, then restart the infusion. Abdominal cramping during a soapsuds enema may be due to too rapid administration of the enema solution. Lowering the height of the enema bag slows the flow and allows the bowel time to adapt to the distention without causing excessive discomfort. Stopping the infusion is not necessary. Advancing the enema tubing is not appropriate. Clamping the tube for several minutes then restarting the infusion may be attempted if slowing the infusion does not relieve the cramps. 50. During the initial physical assessment of a newly admitted client with a pressure ulcer, a nurse observes that the client's skin is dry and scaly. The nurse applies emollients and reinforces the dressing on the pressure ulcer. Legally, were the nurse's actions adequate? The nurse also should have instituted a plan to increase activity. The nurse provided supportive nursing care for the well-being of the client. Debridement of the pressure ulcer should have been done before the dressing was applied Treatment should not have been instituted until the health care provider's prescriptions were received. According to the Nurse Practice Act, a nurse may independently treat human responses to actual or potential health problems. An activity level is prescribed by a health care provider; this is a dependentfunction of the nurse. There is not enough information to come to the conclusion that debridement should have been done before the dressing was applied. Application of an emollient and reinforcing adressing are independent nursing functions. 51. A visitor comes to the nursing station and tells the nurse that a client and his relative had afight and that the client is now lying unconscious on the floor. What is the most important action the nurse needs to take? Ask the client if he is okay. Call security from the room. Find out if there is anyone else in the room. Ask security to make sure the room is safe Safety is the first priority when responding to a presumably violent situation. The nurse needs to have security enter the room to ensure it is safe. Then it can be determined if the client is okay and make sure that any other people in the room are safe 52. To ensure the safety of a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous normal saline infusion, the nurse should change the administration set every: 4 to 8 hours 12 to 24 hours 24 to 48 Hours 72 to 96 hours Best practice guidelines recommend replacing administration sets no more frequently than 72 to 96hours after initiation of use in patients not receiving blood, blood products, or fat emulsions. This evidence-based practice is safe and cost effective. Changing the administration set every 4 to 48hours is not a cost-effective practice 53. A nurse is taking care of a client who has severe back pain as a result of a work injury. What nursing considerations should be made when determining the client's plan of care? Select allthat apply. Ask the client what is the client's acceptable level of pain. Eliminate all activities that precipitate the pain. Administer the pain medications regularly around the clock. Use a different pain scale each time to promote patient education. Assess the client's pain every 15 minutes The nurse works together with the client in order to determine the tolerable level of pain. Considering that the client has chronic, not acute pain, the goal of the pain management is to decrease pain to thetolerable level instead of eliminating pain completely. Administration of pain medications around the clock will provide the stable level of pain medication in the blood and relieve the pain. Elimination of all activities that precipitate the client's pain is not possible even though the nurse will try to minimize such activities. The same pain scale should be used for assessment of the client's pain level helps to ensureconsistency and accuracy in the pain assessment. Only management of acute pain such as postoperative pain requires the pain assessment at frequent intervals. 54. The nurse is preparing to administer eardrops to a client that has impacted cerumen. Before administering the drops, the nurse will assess the client for which contraindications? Select all that apply. Allergy to the medication Itching in the ear canal Drainage from the ear canal Tympanic membrane rupture Partial hearing loss in the affected ear Contraindications to eardrops include allergy to the medication, drainage from the ear canal, and tympanic membrane rupture. Partial hearing loss may occur with impacted cerumen and is not acontra indication to the use of eardrops. Itching may occur with some ear conditions and is not a contraindication to the use of eardrops. 55. What clinical indicators should the nurse expect a client with hyperkalemia to exhibit? Select all that apply. Tetany Seizures Diarrhea Weakness Dysrhythmias Tetany is caused by hypocalcemia. Seizures caused by electrolyte imbalances are associated with low calcium or sodium levels. Because of potassium's role in the sodium/potassium pump, hyperkalemia will cause diarrhea, weakness, and cardiac dysrhythmias. 56. A health care provider has prescribed isoniazid (Laniazid) for a client. Which instructionshould the nurse give the client about this medication? Prolonged use can cause dark concentrated urine. The medication is best absorbed when taken on an empty stomach. Take the medication with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset. Drinking alcohol daily can cause drug-induced hepatitis Daily alcohol intake can cause drug induced hepatitis. Prolonged use does not cause dark concentrated urine. The client should take isoniazid with meals to decrease GI upset. Clients should avoid taking aluminum antacids at the same time as this medication because it impairs absorption. 57. To minimize the side effects of the vincristine (Oncovin) that a client is receiving, what doesthe nurse expect the dietary plan to include? Low in fat High in iron High in fluids Low in residue A common side effect of vincristine is a paralytic ileus that results in constipation. Preventative measures include high-fiber foods and fluids that exceed minimum requirements. These will keep thestool bulky and soft, thereby promoting evacuation. Low in fat, high in iron, and low in residue dietaryplans will not provide the roughage and fluids needed to minimize the constipation associated with vincristine. 58. A postoperative client says to the nurse, "My neighbor, I mean the person in the next room,sings all night and keeps me awake." The neighboring client has dementia and is awaiting transfer to a nursing home. How can the nurse best handle this situation? Tell the neighboring client to stop singing. Close the doors to both clients' rooms at night. Give the complaining client the prescribed as needed sedative. Move the neighboring client to a room at the end of the hall Moving the client who is singing away from the other clients diminishes the disturbance. A client with dementia will not remember instructions. It is unsafe to close the doors of clients' rooms because they need to be monitored. The use of a sedative should not be the initial intervention 59. The nurse is providing postoperative care to a client who had a submucosal resection (SMR)for a deviated septum. The nurse should monitor for what complication associated with this type of surgery? Occipital headache Periorbital crepitus Expectoration of blood Changes in vocalization After an SMR, hemorrhage from the area should be suspected if the client is swallowing frequently orexpelling blood with saliva. A headache in the back of the head is not a complication of a submucosalresection. Crepitus is caused by leakage of air into tissue spaces; it is not an expected complication of SMR. The nerves and structures involved with speech are not within the operative area. However,the sound of the voice is altered temporarily by the presence of nasal packing and edema. 60. A nurse is reviewing a plan of care for a client who was admitted with dehydration as a resultof prolonged watery diarrhea. Which prescription should the nurse question? Oral psyllium (Metamucil) Oral potassium supplement Parenteral half normal saline Parenteral albumin (Albuminar) Albumin is hypertonic and will draw additional fluid from the tissues into the intravascular space. Oralpsyllium will absorb the watery diarrhea, giving more bulk to the stool. An oral potassium supplementis appropriate because diarrhea causes potassium loss. Parenteral half normal saline is a hypotonic solution, which can correct dehydration. 61. A client is to have mafenide (Sulfamylon) cream applied to burned areas. For which serious side effect of mafenide therapy should the nurse monitor this client? Curling ulcer Renal shut down Metabolic acidosis Hemolysis of red blood cells Mafenide interferes with the kidneys' role in hydrogen ion excretion, resulting in metabolic acidosis.Curling ulcer, renal shutdown, and hemolysis of red blood cells are not adverse effects of the drugs. 62. A nurse is preparing to administer an ophthalmic medication to a client. What techniquesshould the nurse use for this procedure? Select all that apply. Clean the eyelid and eyelashes. Place the dropper against the eyelid. Apply clean gloves before beginning of procedure. Instill the solution directly onto cornea. Press on the nasolacrimal duct after instilling the solution. Cleaning of the eyelids and eyelashes helps to prevent contamination of the other eye and lacrimal duct. Application of gloves helps to prevent direct contact of the nurse with the client's body fluids. Applying pressure to the nasolacrimal duct prevents the medication from running out of the eye. The dropper should not touch the eyelids or eyelashes in order to prevent contamination of the medicationin the dropper. The medication should not be instilled directly onto the cornea because cornea has many pain fibers and is therefore very sensitive. The medication is to be instilled into the lower conjunctival sac. 63. The nurse recognizes that which are important components of a neurovascular assessment?Select all that apply. Orientation Capillary refill Pupillary response Respiratory rate Pulse and skin temperature Movement and sensation A neurovascular assessment involves evaluation of nerve and blood supply to an extremity involved in an injury. The area involved may include an orthopedic and/or soft tissue injury. A correct neurovascular assessment should include evaluation of capillary refill, pulses, warmth and paresthesias, and movement and sensation. Orientation, pupillary response, and respiratory rate arecomponents of a neurological assessment. 64. A client reaches the point of acceptance during the stages of dying. What response should the nurse expect the client to exhibit? Apathy Euphoria Detachment Emotionalism When an individual reaches the point of being intellectually and psychologically able to accept death, anxiety is reduced and the individual becomes detached from the environment. Although detached, the client is not apathetic but still may be concerned and use time constructively. Although resigned todeath, the individual is not euphoric. In the stage of acceptance, the client is no longer angry or depressed. 65. A dying client is coping with feelings regarding impending death. The nurse bases care on the theory of death and dying by Kübler-Ross. During which stage of grieving should the nurse primarily use nonverbal interventions? Anger Denial Bargaining Acceptance Communication and interventions during the acceptance stage are mainly nonverbal (e.g., holding the client's hand). The nurse should be quiet but available. During the anger stage the nurse should accept that the client is angry. The anger stage requires verbal communication. During the denial stage the nurse should accept the client's behavior but not reinforce the denial. The denial stage requires verbal communication. During the bargaining stage the nurse should listen intently but not provide false reassurance. The bargaining stage requires verbal communication. 66. When a client files a lawsuit against a nurse for malpractice, the client must prove that there is a link between the harm suffered and actions performed by the nurse that were negligent. Thisis known as: Evidence Tort discovery Proximate cause Common cause Proximate cause is the legal concept meaning that the client must prove that the nurse's actions contributed to or caused the client's injury. Evidence is data presented in proof of the facts, which may include witness testimony, records, documents, or objects. A tort is a wrongful act, not including a breach of contract of trust that results in injury to another person. Common cause means to unite one's interest with another's. 67. Following a surgery on the neck, the client asks the nurse why the head of the bed is up sohigh. The nurse should tell the client that the high-Fowler position is preferred for what reason? To avoid strain on the incision To promote drainage of the woundTo provide stimulation for the client To reduce edema at the operative site This position prevents fluid accumulation in the tissue, thereby minimizing edema. This position will neither increase nor decrease strain on the suture line. Drainage from the wound will not be affected by this position. This position will not affect the degree of stimulation. 68. The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a client who has begun to demonstrate signs of early Alzheimer dementia. The client lives alone. The client's adult children live nearby. According to the prescribed medication regimen the client is to take medications six times throughout the day. What is the priority nursing intervention to assist the client with taking the medication? Contact the client's children and ask them to hire a private duty aide who will provide round-the-clockcare. Develop a chart for the client, listing the times the medication should be taken. Contact the primary health care provider and discuss the possibility of simplifying the medication regimen. Instruct the client and client's children to put medications in a weekly pill organizer. Contacting a medical care provider and discussing the possibility of simplifying the client's Medication regimen will make it possible to use a weekly pill organizer : an empty pill box will remind the client who has a short- term memory deficit due to Alzheimer dementia that medication was taken and will prevent medication being taken multiple times. The client does not require 24-hour supervision because the client is in the outset of the Alzheimer dementia and the major issue is a short-term memory loss. A chart may be complex and difficult to understand for the client and will require the client to perform cognitive tasks multiple times on daily basis that may be beyond the client's ability. Use of the weekly pill organizers will be difficult with the current medication regimen when the client has to take medications six times a day; the medication regimen has to be simplified first. 69. The nurse expects a client with an elevated temperature to exhibit what indicators of pyrexia? Select all that apply. Dyspnea Flushed face Precordial pain Increased pulse rate Increased blood pressure Increased body heat dilates blood vessels, causing a flushed face. The pulse rate increases to meet increased tissue demands for oxygen in the febrile state. Fever may not cause difficult breathing. Pain is not related to fever. Blood pressure is not expected to increase with fever. 70. The nurse should instruct a client with an ileal conduit to empty the collection device frequently because a full urine collection bag may: Force urine to back up into the kidneys. Suppress production of urine. Cause the device to pull away from the skin. Tear the ileal conduit If the device becomes full and is not emptied, it may pull away from the skin and leak urine. Urine in contact with unprotected skin will irritate and cause skin breakdown. A full urine collection bag will not cause urine to back up into the kidneys, suppress the production of urine, or tear the ileal conduit. 71. The triage nurse in the emergency department receives four clients simultaneously. Which of the clients should the nurse determine can be treated last? Multipara in active labor Middle-aged woman with substernal chest pain Older adult male with a partially amputated finger Adolescent boy with an oxygen saturation of 91% Although a client with a partially amputated finger needs control of bleeding, the injury is not life threatening and the client can wait for care. A woman in active labor should be assessed immediately because birth may be imminent. A woman with chest pain may be experiencing a life-threatening illness and should be assessed immediately. An adolescent with significant hypoxia may be experiencing a life-threatening illness and should be assessed immediately. 72. Health promotion efforts with the chronically ill client should include interventions related to primary prevention. What should this include? Encouraging daily physical exercise Performing yearly physical examinations Providing hypertension screening programs Teaching a person with diabetes how to prevent complications Primary prevention activities are directed toward promoting healthful lifestyles and increasing the level of wellbeing. Performing yearly physical examinations is a secondary prevention. Emphasis is on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for those experiencing health problems. Providing hypertension screening programs is a secondary prevention. Emphasis is on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for those experiencing health problems. Teaching a person with diabetes how to prevent complications is a tertiary prevention. Emphasis is on rehabilitating individuals and restoring them to an optimum level of functioning. 73. A nurse who is working on a medical-surgical unit receives a phone call requesting information about a client who has undergone surgery. The nurse observes that the client requested a do not publish (DNP) order on any information regarding condition or presence in the hospital. What is the best response by the nurse? "We have no record of that client on our unit. Thank you for calling." "The new privacy laws prevent me from providing any client information over the phone." "The client has requested that no information be given out. You'll need to call the client directly." "It is against the hospital's policy to provide you with any information regarding any of our clients." The response "We have no record of that client on our unit. Thank you for calling." conforms to there quest that no information be given regarding the client's condition or presence in the hospital. HIPAA laws do not prohibit the provision of information to others as long as the client consents. The response "The client has requested that no information be given out. You'll need to call the client directly." implies that the client is admitted to the facility; this violates the client's request that no information should be shared with others. Hospital policies do not prohibit the provision of informationto others as long as the client consents. The response "It is against the hospital's policy to provide you with any information regarding any of our clients." also implies that the client is admitted to the facility. 74. When being interviewed for a position as a registered professional nurse, the applicant isasked to identify an example of an intentional tort. What is the appropriate response? Negligence Malpractice Breach of duty False imprisonment False imprisonment is a wrong committed by one person against another in a willful, intentional way without just cause or excuse. Negligence is an unintentional tort. Malpractice, which is professional negligence, is classified as an unintentional tort. Breach of duty is an unintentional tort. 75. The nurse plans care for a client with a somatoform disorder based on the understanding that the disorder is: A physiological response to stress A conscious defense against anxiety An intentional attempt to gain attention An unconscious means of reducing stress When emotional stress overwhelms an individual's ability to cope, the unconscious seeks to reduce stress. A conversion reaction removes the client from the stressful situation, and the conversion reaction's physical/sensory manifestation causes little or no anxiety in the individual. This lack of concern is called la belle indifference. No physiologic changes are involved with this unconscious resolution of a conflict. The conversion of anxiety to physical symptoms operates on an unconsciouslevel. 76. A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in the urine. The health care provider orders an indwelling urinary catheter to be inserted. Which precaution should the nurse take during this procedure? Droplet precautions Reverse isolation Surgical asepsis Medical asepsis Catheter insertion requires the procedure to be performed under sterile technique. Droplet precautions are used with certain respiratory illnesses. Reverse isolation is used with clients who maybe immunocompromised. Medical asepsis involves clean technique/gloving. 77. A nurse is teaching an adolescent about type 1 diabetes and self-care. Which questions from the client indicate a need for additional teaching in the cognitive domain? Select all that apply. "What is diabetes?" "What will my friends think?" "How do I give myself an injection?" "Can you tell me how the glucose monitor works?" "How do I get the insulin from the vial into the syringe? Acquiring knowledge or understanding aids in developing concepts, rather than skills or attitudes, and is a basic learning task in the cognitive domain. Values and self-realization are in the affective domain. Skills acquisition is in the psychomotor domain. 78. Place each step of the nursing process in the order that it should be used. Obtain client's nursing history. State client's nursing needs. Identify goals for care. Develop a plan of care. Implement nursing interventions. First the nurse should gather data. Based on the data, the client's needs are assessed. After the needs have been determined, the goals for care are established. The next step is planning care based on the knowledge gained from the previous steps. Implementation follows the development of the plan of care. 79. In what position should the nurse place a client recovering from general anesthesia? Supine Side-lying High Fowler Trendelenburg Turning the client to the side promotes drainage of secretions and prevents aspiration, especially when the gag reflex is not intact. This position also brings the tongue forward, preventing it from occluding the airway when it is in the relaxed state. The risk for aspiration is increased when the supine position is assumed by a semi-alert client. High Fowler position may cause the neck to flex in lying a client who is not alert, interfering with respirations. Trendelenburg position is not used for apostoperative client because it interferes with breathing. 80. Which age-related change should the nurse consider when formulating a plan of care for an older adult? Select all that apply. Difficulty in swallowing Increased sensitivity to heat Increased sensitivity to glare Diminished sensation of pain Heightened response to stimuli Changes in the ciliary muscles, decrease in pupil size, and a more rigid pupil sphincter contribute to an increased sensitivity to glare. Diminished sensation of pain may make an older individual unawareof a serious illness, thermal extremes, or excessive pressure. There should be no interference with swallowing in older individuals. Older individuals tend to feel the cold and rarely complain of the heat.There is a decreased response to stimuli in the older individual 81. The spouse of a comatose client who has severe internal bleeding refuses to allow transfusions of whole blood because they are Jehovah's Witnesses. The client does not havea Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare. What action should the nurse take? Institute the prescribed blood transfusion because the client's survival depends on volumereplacement. Clarify the reason why the transfusion is necessary and explain the implications if there is notransfusion. Phone the health care provider for an administrative prescription to give the transfusion under these circumstances. Give the spouse a treatment refusal form to sign and notify the health care provider that a court order now can be sought. The client is unconscious. Although the spouse can give consent, there is no legal power to refuse a treatment for the client unless previously authorized to do so by a power of attorney or a health careproxy; the court can make a decision for the client. Explanations will not be effective at this time andwill not meet the client's needs. Instituting the prescribed blood transfusion and phoning the health care provider for an administrative prescription are without legal basis, and the nurse may be held liable. 82. Twenty-four hours after a cesarean birth, a client elects to sign herself and her baby out of thehospital. Staff members are unable to contact her health care provider. The client arrives at the nursery and asks that her infant be given to her to take home. What is the most appropriate nursing action? Give the infant to the client and instruct her regarding the infant's care Explain to the client that she can leave, but her infant must remain in the hospital. Emphasize to the client that the infant is a minor and legally must remain until prescriptions arereceived. Tell the client that hospital policy prevents the staff from releasing the infant until ready for discharge When a client signs herself and her infant out of the hospital, she is legally responsible for her infant. The infant is the responsibility of the mother and can leave with the mother when she signs them out. 83. A client reports fatigue and dyspnea and appears pale. The nurse questions the client about medications currently being taken. In light of the symptoms, which medication causes the nurse to be most concerned? Famotidine (Pepcid) Methyldopa (Aldomet) Ferrous sulfate (Feosol) Levothyroxine (Synthroid) Methyldopa is associated with acquired hemolytic anemia and should be discontinued to prevent progression and complications. Famotidine will not cause these symptoms; it decreases gastric acidsecretion, which will decrease the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Ferrous sulfate is an iron supplement to correct, not cause, symptoms of anemia. Levothyroxine is not associated with red blood cell destruction. 84. The nurse assesses a client's pulse and documents the strength of the pulse as 3+. The nurse understands that this indicates the pulse is: faint, barely detectable. slightly weak, palpable. normal. bounding. The strength of a pulse is a measurement of the force at which blood is ejected against the arterial wall. Palpation should be done using the fingertips and intensity of the pulse graded on a scale of 0 to4 + with 0 indicating no palpable pulse, 1 + indicating a faint, but detectable pulse, 2 + suggesting a slightly more diminished pulse than normal, 3 + is a normal pulse, and 4 + indicating a bounding pulse. 85. A toddler screams and cries noisily after parental visits, disturbing all the other children. When the crying is particularly loud and prolonged, the nurse puts the crib in a separate roomand closes the door. The toddler is left there until the crying ceases, a matter of 30 or 45 minutes. Legally, how should this behavior be interpreted? Limits had to be set to control the child's crying. The child had a right to remain in the room with the other children. The child had to be removed because the other children needed to be considered. Segregation of the child for more than half an hour was too long a period of time. Legally, a person cannot be locked in a room (isolated) unless there is a threat of danger either to the self or to others. Limit setting in this situation is not warranted. This is a reaction to separation from the parent, which is common at this age. Crying, although irritating, will not harm the other children. A child should never be isolated 86. An older client who is receiving chemotherapy for cancer has severe nausea and vomiting and becomes dehydrated. The client is admitted to the hospital for rehydration therapy. Which interventions have specific gerontologic implications the nurse must consider? Select all that apply. Assessment of skin turgor Documentation of vital sign Assessment of intake and output Administration of antiemetic drugs Replacement of fluid and electrolytes When skin turgor is assessed, the presence of tenting may be related to loss of subcutaneous tissue associated with aging rather than to dehydration; skin over the sternum should be used instead of skin on the arm for checking turgor. Older adults are susceptible to central nervous system side effects, such as confusion, associated with antiemetic drugs; dosages must be reduced, and responses must be evaluated closely. Because many older adults have delicate fluid balance and may have cardiac and renal disease, replacement of fluid and electrolytes may result in adverse consequences, such as hypervolemia, pulmonary edema, and electrolyte imbalance. Vital signs can be obtained as with any other adult. Intake and output can be measured accurately in older adults. 87. What should the nurse consider when obtaining an informed consent from a 17-year-oldadolescent? If the client is allowed to give consent The client cannot make informed decisions about health care. If the client is permitted to give voluntary consent when parents are not available. The client probably will be unable to choose between alternatives when asked to consent. A person is legally unable to sign a consent until the age of 18 years unless the client is an emancipated minor or married. The nurse must determine the legal status of the adolescent. Although the adolescent may be capable of intelligent choices, 18 is the legal age of consent unless the client is emancipated or married. Parents or guardians are legally responsible under all circumstances unless the adolescent is an emancipated minor or married. Adolescents have the capacity to choose, but not the legal right in this situation unless they are legally emancipated or married. 88. An 85-year-old client has just been admitted to a nursing home. When designing a plan of care for this older adult the nurse recalls what expected sensory losses associated with aging? Select all that apply. Difficulty in swallowing Diminished sensation of pain Heightened response to stimuli Impaired hearing of high-frequency sounds Increased ability to tolerate environmental heat Because of aging of the nervous system an older adult has a diminished sensation of pain and may be unaware of a serious illness, thermal extremes, or excessive pressure. As people age they experience atrophy of the organ of Corti and cochlear neurons, loss of the sensory hair cells, and degeneration of the stria vascularis, which affects an older person's ability to perceive high-frequency sounds. An interference with swallowing is a motor, not a sensory, loss, nor is it an expected response to aging. There is a decreased, not heightened, response to stimuli in older adults. There is a decreased, not increased, ability to physiologically adjust to extremes in environmental temperature. 89. A nurse receives a subpoena in a court case involving a child. The nurse is preparing to appear in court. In addition to the state Nurse Practice Act and the American Nursing Association (ANA) Code for Nurses, what else should the nurse review? Nursing's Social Policy Statement State law regarding protection of minors ANA Standards of Clinical Nursing Practice References regarding a child's right to consent The ANA Standards of Clinical Nursing Practice guidelines govern safe nursing practice; nurses are legally responsible to perform according to these guidelines. Nursing's Social Policy Statement explains what the public can expect from nurses, but it is not used to govern nursing practice. There are no data that indicate state law regarding protection of minors and references regarding a child's right to consent are necessary. 90. A client is receiving albuterol (Proventil) to relieve severe asthma. For which clinical indicators should the nurse monitor the client? Select all that apply. Tremors Lethargy Palpitations Visual disturbances Decreased pulse rate Albuterol's sympathomimetic effect causes central nervous stimulation, precipitating tremors, restlessness, and anxiety. Albuterol's sympathomimetic effect causes cardiac stimulation that may result in tachycardia and palpitations. Albuterol may cause restlessness, irritability, and tremors, not lethargy. Albuterol may cause dizziness, not visual disturbances. Albuterol will cause tachycardia, not bradycardia. 91. A client asks about the purpose of a pulse oximeter. The nurse explains that it is used tomeasure the: Respiratory rate. Amount of oxygen in the blood. Percentage of hemoglobin-carrying oxygen. Amount of carbon dioxide in the blood The pulse oximeter measures the oxygen saturation of blood by determining the percentage of hemoglobin-carrying oxygen. A pulse oximeter does not interpret the amount of oxygen or carbondioxide carried in the blood, nor does it measure respiratory rate. 92. A client comes to the clinic complaining of a productive cough with copious yellow sputum, fever, and chills for the past two days. The first thing the nurse should do when caring for this client is to: Encourage fluids. Administer oxygen. Take the temperature. Collect a sputum specimen Baseline vital signs are extremely important; physical assessment precedes diagnostic measures and intervention. This is done after the health care provider makes a medical diagnosis; this is not an independent function of the nurse. Encouraging fluids might be done after it is determined whether a specimen for blood gases is needed; this is not usually an independent function of the nurse. Oxygen is administered independently by the nurse only in an emergency situation. A sputum specimen should be obtained after vital signs and before administration of antibiotics. 93. A nurse is preparing a community health program for senior citizens. The nurse teaches thegroup that the physical findings that are typical in older people include: A loss of skin elasticity and a decrease in libid Impaired fat digestion and increased salivary secretions Increased blood pressure and decreased hormone production An increase in body warmth and some swallowing difficulties With aging, narrowing of the arteries causes some increase in the systolic and diastolic blood pressures; hormone production decreases after menopause. There may or may not be changes in libido; there is a loss of skin elasticity. Salivary secretions decrease, not increase, causing more difficulty with swallowing; there is some impairment of fat digestion. There may be a decrease in subcutaneous fat and decreasing body warmth; some swallowing difficulties occur because of decreased oral secretions. 94. A client has been diagnosed as brain dead. The nurse understands that this means that the client has: No spontaneous reflexes Shallow and slow breathing No cortical functioning with some reflex breathing Deep tendon reflexes only and no independent breathing A client who is declared as being brain dead has no function of the cerebral cortex and a flat EEG. The client may have some spontaneous breathing and a heartbeat. The guidelines established by the American Association of Neurology include coma or unresponsiveness, absence of brainstem reflexes, and apnea. There are specific assessments to validate the findings. The other answer options do not fit the definition of brain dead. 95. A nurse cares for a client that has been bitten by a large dog. A bite by a large dog can cause which type of trauma? Abrasion Fracture Crush injury Incisional laceration The bite of a large dog can exert between 150 and 400 psi of pressure, causing a crush injury. A crush injury may or may not include a fracture. Abrasions and incisional lacerations are not caused bythis form of trauma. 96. A client who was exposed to hepatitis A asks why an injection of gamma globulin is needed. Before responding, what should the nurse consider about how gamma globulin provides passive immunity? It increases production of short-lived antibodies. It accelerates antigen-antibody union at the hepatic sites. The lymphatic system is stimulated to produce antibodies. The antigen is neutralized by the antibodies that it supplies Gamma globulin, which is an immune globulin, contains most of the antibodies circulating in the blood. When injected into an individual, it prevents a specific antigen from entering a host cell. Gamma globulin does not stimulate antibody production. It does not affect antigen-antibody function. 97. A nurse is caring for a client with an impaired immune system. Which blood proteinassociated with the immune system is important for the nurse to consider? Albumin Globulin Thrombin Hemoglobin The gamma-globulin fraction in the plasma is the fraction that includes the antibodies. Albumin helps regulate fluid shifts by maintaining plasma oncotic pressure. Thrombin is involved with clotting. Hemoglobin carries oxygen. 98. A nurse discusses the philosophy of Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) with the client who has a history of alcoholism. What need must self-help groups such as AA meet to be successful? Trust Growth Belonging Independence Self-help groups are successful because they support a basic human need for acceptance. A feeling of comfort and safety and a sense of belonging may be achieved in a nonjudgmental, supportive, sharing experience with others. AA meets dependency needs rather than focusing on independence, trust, and growth. 99. What type of interview is most appropriate when a nurse admits a client to a clinic? Directive Exploratory Problem solving Information giving The first step in the problem-solving process is data collection so that client needs can be identified. During the initial interview a direct approach obtains specific information, such as allergies, current medications, and health history. The exploratory approach is too broad because in a nondirective interview the client controls the subject matter. Problem solving and information giving are prematureat the initial visit. 100. What is a basic concept associated with rehabilitation that the nurse should consider when formulating discharge plans for clients? Rehabilitation needs are met best by the client's family and community resources. Rehabilitation is a specialty area with unique methods for meeting clients' needs. Immediate or potential rehabilitation needs are exhibited by clients with health problems. Clients who are returning to their usual activities following hospitalization do not require rehabilitation. Rehabilitation refers to a process that assists clients to obtain optimal func